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Punjab & Haryana HC takes old age into consideration, grants bail to father-in-law in murder case

Read Order: Jarnail Singh v. State of Punjab 

LE Staff

Chandigarh, August 26, 2021: The Punjab and Haryana High Court has allowed the bail plea of a 76-year-old man, facing charges in the murder case of his daughter-in-law, after considering his old age and the fact that he has been behind bars for almost one year.

“That being so, without making any comment on the actual merits of the case, as the prime allegation is against the husband of the deceased, simply looking at this stage at the age of the petitioner, the stage of the trial and the period of his custody, the petition is allowed. He be released on bail to the satisfaction of the trial Court/CJM/Duty Magistrate concerned,” noted the Bench of Justice Amol Rattan Singh.

There were specific allegations against the petitioner and other co-accused for committing the murder of Swaranjit Kaur in collusion with each other, and therefore dismissal of this petition was sought by the State.

The Court opined that a perusal of an earlier order passed in the case of the wife of the present petitioner, i.e. the mother-in-law of the deceased woman, showed that it had been contended that the daughter-in-law of the petitioner was habitual of taking a particular tablet on account of epileptic fits, and that one of the side effects of long use of that medicine was a tendency to commit suicide.

It was also contended in that petition that it was actually the petitioner’s son who has been alleged to have strangulated her, though the case of the accused was that she had committed suicide by hanging herself with a ‘dupatta’. 

Other than that, the wife of the petitioner was admitted to bail on the ground that she was a 74-year-old woman and this fact was taken into consideration along with the other contentions raised.

The counsel of the petitioner (father-in-law of the deceased) mainly argued that he is also 76 years old and has been in custody since September 11, 2020, and this period was slightly over 11 months. Also, only two prosecution witnesses had been examined out of 21.

The Bench, without making any comment on the actual merits of the case, and specifically looking at this stage at the age of the petitioner, the stage of the trial and the period of his custody, allowed the petition and granted him bail.

Punjab & Haryana HC imposes Rs 1000 cost on lawyer for abstaining from work

Read Order: BALJIT SINGH VS STATE OF PUNJAB 

LE Staff

Chandigarh, August 26, 2021: The Punjab and Haryana High Court has dismissed an application for early hearing and imposed a cost of Rs 1,000 on a lawyer, as he abstained from work on August 11, 2021.

“Despite the fact that the Courts are working through virtual mode with great difficulties having lots of connectivity issues, the lawyers resorted to abstain from work on 11.08.2021,” said the single Bench of Justice Arvind Singh Sangwan.

The prayer in this application was made for preponing the date of the main case which has been fixed for October 28, 2021.

The case was last listed on August 11, 2021, when the lawyers had volunteered to abstain from work.

The Bench clarified that despite the fact that the Courts have been working through virtual mode with great difficulties as there are lots of connectivity issues, the lawyers still resorted to abstain from work on August 11,2021.

Hence, finding no ground for early hearing, the present application has been dismissed with cost of Rs. 1,000. The High Court has also held that the aforesaid cost will have to be deposited with the High Court Legal Services Authority within a period of 15 days.

However, the Bench also stated that after depositing the cost, it will be open for the petitioner to recover the same from the Punjab and Haryana High Court Bar Association, Chandigarh and in case the amount is not paid to him, he can claim/adjust the same against his subscription fee/membership fee.

Punjab & Haryana HC directs FIR to be registered against police officials for illegal detention

Read Order: MANJIT KAUR V/S STATE OF PUNJAB AND OTHERS

LE Staff

Chandigarh, August 26, 2021: The Punjab and Haryana High Court has directed the Senior Superintendent of Police, Moga, to register an FIR against SI Karamjit Singh, ASI Jaswant Rai, Gunman Pawan Kumar and one lady police official, found to be guilty of having illegally detained a man and a woman, under appropriate provisions of law.

A Bench of Justice Arun Kumar Tyagi has also ordered to constitute a special investigation team (SIT) of police officers/officials from other police station/sub-division for the investigation of the case.

By an earlier order dated March 9 ,2021, the District and Sessions Judge, Moga was directed to conduct an inquiry into allegations of illegal detention of Shinda Singh and Paramjit Kaur and malafides made against the respondents after hearing the parties, giving them opportunity to file replies and taking such material evidence as may be produced by the parties before him. 

The District and Sessions Judge was also directed to submit his report within one month from the date of appearance of the parties before him.

In the Report, it was submitted that the aforementioned officials were guilty of illegal detention of Shinda Singh and Paramjit Kaur.

Thus, in view of this report, the bench has directed a SIT probe and has also asked that the Compliance report regarding registration of the FIR be filed in the Registry before September 3, 2021. The case has also been ordered be listed on that date and be shown in the list of urgent cases.

Action against violation of securities laws is not barred simply because of delay in initiating proceedings: SEBI

Read order: SEBI Order in KARVY FINANCIAL SERVICES LTD

LE Correspondent

New Delhi, August 26, 2021: While imposing monetary penalty on Noticee under section 15H(ii) of the SEBI Act, the Securities & Exchange Board of India has held that even when there is delay in initiating proceedings, it can take action against a person who has violated securities laws.

Prasanta Mahapatra (Adjudicating officer), observed that neither SEBI Act nor Regulations framed thereunder prescribed any time limit for initiating proceedings against persons who had violated the securities laws. 

The Board further stated that in the absence of any specific provision in the SEBI Act or Takeover Regulations, the fact that there was delay on part of SEBI in initiating proceedings for violation of any provision of the Act could not be a ground to quash the penalty imposed for such violation. 

As per the background of the case, SEBI conducted examination in respect of Regaliaa Reality Ltd. (RRL) and observed that Noticee Karvy Financial Services Ltd., an NBFC registered with RBI, had extended a loan to RRL. Besides providing other securities, RRL’s promoters pledged Equity Shares, constituting 55.56% of RRL’s paid-up share capital in favour of KFSL (Acquirer). 

As RRL defaulted in paying installments, KFSL invoked the pledge and thus, acquired equity shares and voting rights in respect of pledged shares. Thus, KFSL’s shareholding in Target Company RRL increased from 0% to 55.56%, thereby, breaching threshold of 25% as stipulated under SAST Regulation 3(1). 

Eventually, KFSL made public announcement for making open offer with a delay of 81 days. Thus, it was alleged to have violated provisions of SAST Regulations 3(1) and 4 r.w. Regulations 13, 14, 15, 16, 17 and 18. Accordingly Show Cause Notice (SCN) was issued to Noticee and Adjudicating Officer (AO) was appointed. 

It was submitted on behalf of Noticee that there was extraordinary inordinate delay in issuance of SCN, which had prejudiced them and on this ground, it was prayed that SCN should be dropped. 

After considering the facts & contentions, the Board found that Noticee had been corresponding with SEBI since October 2014 on the subject of acquisition of shares. Thus, even if it was assumed that Noticee was not aware of making public announcement at the time of acquisition of shares in 2012, after being called upon by SEBI in 2014, Noticee was aware of the regulatory requirement of making open offer upon breaching 25% threshold stipulated u/ SAST Regulation 3(1). However, Noticee delayed in making the public announcement, citing litigations with RRL/Target Company. 

The Board reiterated that SAST Regulations in the first place had put onus of public announcement on acquirer and not on Target Company, which is to be complied with regulatory requirements in a time-bound manner. 

While making it clear that there was no delay attributable to SEBI in initiation of proceedings, the Board said that the open offer requirement triggered in the year 2012 had been concluded in 2020 by KFSL upon directions issued by SEBI in 2016 that were duly upheld by SAT in 2018. Therefore, instant proceedings were initiated on May 4, 2021 with appointment of AO and on May 24, 2021, SCN issued was served upon Noticee.

Delay in complying with regulatory requirements by Noticee was due to acts and deeds committed by itself but Noticee was held to have been trying to draw inference from the facts as delay on part of SEBI in initiating instant proceedings that was misconceived, added the Board. 

Besides, SEBI opined that Noticee’s delay in making public announcement had resulted in denying statutory right of company’s shareholders to exit through open offer mechanism at respective point of time. 

At the same time, the Board said that no period of limitation was prescribed in the Act or Regulations for issuance of a show cause notice or for completion of adjudication proceedings and in absence of any period of limitation, authority must exercise its powers within reasonable period that would depend on facts of each case.

The Adjudicating officer thus held that Noticee’s public announcement for open offer with a delay of 81 days was in violation of provisions of SAST Regulations 3(1) and 4 r.w. Regulations 13, 14, 15, 16, 17 and 18 and hence, Noticee was liable for monetary penalty u/s 15H(ii) of the SEBI Act. 

Additional reservation for EWS in All India Quota seats not permissible in absence of law of land: Madras HC

Read order: Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam vs. Mr.Rajesh Bhushan, Secretary, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare & Ors

LE Correspondent

Chennai, August 26, 2021: Noticing that the All India Quota (AIQ) scheme has been introduced for entrance to under-graduate and post-graduate degrees and diploma courses in government-run or aided medical and dental colleges across the country pursuant to orders of the Supreme Court, the Madras High Court has ruled that horizontal reservation provided in Notification of July 29, 2021 issued by the Union for persons with disabilities, appears to be in accordance with law.

However, additional reservation provided for economically weaker sections (EWS) in the said notification cannot be permitted, except with the approval of the Supreme Court in such regard, added the High Court. 

The Division Bench of Chief Justice Sanjib Banerjee and Justice P.D. Audikesavalu observed that the provision for additional reservation, over and above 50 per cent, permitted by the Constitution (One Hundred and Third Amendment) Act, 2019 appears to fall foul of the dictum in Indra Sawhney case, and further reservation in the AIQ seats for admission to the under-graduate, post-graduate and diploma medical and dental courses in the State should be only upon the approval of the Supreme Court.

 “The entire concept of reservation that appears to have been addressed by the Constituent Assembly while framing the Constitution may have been turned on its head by repeated amendments and the veritable reinvigoration of the caste system – and even extending it to denominations where it does not exist – instead of empowering citizens so that merit may ultimately decide matters as to admission, appointment and promotion,” observed the Bench. 

“Rather than the caste system being wiped away, the present trend seems to perpetuate it by endlessly extending a measure that was to remain only for a short duration to cover the infancy and, possibly, the adolescence of the Republic. Though the life of a nation state may not be relatable to the human process of aging, but at over-70, it ought, probably, to be more mature,” opined the High Court.  

The observation came pursuant to a petition filed by political parties complaining of deliberate and willful violation of the order directing implementation of reservation for Other Backward Classes (OBC) in the AIQ of the seats surrendered by the State for admission to the under-graduate, post-graduate and diploma medical and dental courses in the State. 

The petitioner asserted that whether or not certain seats in government medical colleges or government aided or approved medical colleges have been surrendered by the State to be included as part of the AIQ seats, since the admission was sought and was to be granted in institutions in this State, the relevant institutions would be governed by the Tamil Nadu Backward Classes, Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Reservation of Seats in Educational Institutions and of Appointments or Posts in the Services under the State) Act, 1993.

Chief Justice Banerjee stated that the State reservation rules would not apply to AIQ seats for admission to the under-graduate, postgraduate and diploma medical and dental courses in the State since that would, ipso facto, take the seats away from the AIQ pool back to the State as only backward classes as notified by the State in its official gazette would be entitled to the reservation and not candidates not resident in the State.

Since the committee required to be constituted by the order dated July 27, 2020 was constituted and such committee gave its opinion and the Union, or its appropriate agencies, have acted on the basis thereof, albeit not exactly in terms of the recommendations, no case of willful or deliberate violation of the said order can be said to have been made out, added the Bench. 

However, the Division Bench expressed its reservations regarding the validity of extending an additional ten percent reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) in AIQ seats and thus observed that the same is not permissible without the Supreme Court’s approval.

Imposing ban on one particular industry alone from purchasing power through ‘open access’ amounts to irrational discrimination: Electricity Appellate Tribunal

Read Judgement: Srikalahasti Pipes Limited vs. Andhra Pradesh State & Ors

Pankaj Bajpai

New Delhi, August 26, 2021: The Electricity Appellate Tribunal has ruled that the restriction imposed by the Electricity Commission on purchase of power through ‘open access’ only to Ferro Alloys industries and not to other Energy Intensive industries, definitely amounts to discrimination in the absence of any reasonable justification. 

Manjula Chellur, the Chairperson, observed that there is no rationale why other energy intensive industries were allowed to have open access and why only Ferro Alloys industries are left out, when all Energy Intensive industries are to be treated at par with no additional benefit of any nature. 

“The objective behind making a provision of open access, primarily was with a definite motive and intention to develop competition in the power sector by providing open access, so that the consumer of power gets an option to choose from which source he could procure power other than the distribution licensee within whose area the consumer is situated,” added the Tribunal. 

The observation came pursuant to an order passed by the State Commission in respect of miscalculation of cross subsidy charge and blanket ban imposed upon Ferro Alloys industries being an Energy Intensive industry for procuring power from open access.

It was contended that the ban is limited only to Ferro Alloys industries from purchasing power through open access, which is nothing but creating unreasonable differentiation within a Class of industries like PV Ingots, Cell manufacturing units, Polly Silicon industry and Aluminum industries. 

Challenging the ban imposed by the Regulatory Commission, the Appellant solicited the attention of this Tribunal towards the definition of ‘Open Access’ u/s 2(47) of the Electricity Act which defines open access as nondiscriminatory provision.

It was therefore pleaded that there was no rationale in imposing restriction to purchase power from open access only on Ferro Alloys industry and not on other similarly placed industries, which have the same tariff like the Appellant. 

The Appellate Tribunal found that the controversy is with regard to different opinions expressed by the Members of the Bench with reference to Section 42, open access, whether it is an absolute right or whether it is a right which could be subjected to conditions/restrictions. 

The Tribunal further found that the amendment to Electricity Act, 2003 had done away with the option of giving open access prior to elimination of cross subsidy. Therefore, it became mandatory to grant open access by the Commission only on payment of surcharge/wheeling charges. 

A conjoint reading of Section 42 along with amended first and fifth provisos, shows that there should not be any further condition i.e., such open access should not be subjected to the process of approval by the Commission, so that the consumer would exercise its right of open access, added the Tribunal. 

Observing that the Appellant is having the required connection of 17 MVA to enjoy open access, the Tribunal said that it falls within the required range indicated u/s 42. 

Apparently, the Appellant is not claiming any exemption from paying cross subsidy. So also Respondent has not denied open access on account of operational constraints, noted the Tribunal. 

The Appellate Tribunal is surprised to know that the Respondent Commission though opined that several other industries fell in the category of Energy Intensive industry as a whole, the so-called compulsion/restriction/ban concerned was imposed only on Ferro Alloy industries. By such imposition only to Ferro Alloy industry, it is carving out a separate category from Energy Intensive industry as a whole. 

Unless there is rationale behind doing so, which is acceptable not only on facts but also in accordance with law, the said action of the Respondent Commission cannot be appreciated, added the Tribunal. 

The Tribunal further highlighted that the Respondent Commission seems to have imposed the so-called ban/restriction on the ground of incentive or concessional tariff said to have been extended to the Ferro Alloy Industries, without any reasonable classification. 

Accordingly, the Chairperson held that it is the right of the consumer to select the supplier of power, and interference in such right by the State Commission would mean that the consumer is forced to procure power only from the distribution licensee. 

Hence, answering the reference in favour of the Appellant, the Electricity Appellate Tribunal opined that there cannot be a compulsion on the Appellant not to procure power through open access.

Refusal to amend Bill of Entry to enable importer to claim refund of excess duty paid, is not acceptable: Telangana HC

Read judgment: Sony India Pvt. Ltd. vs. Union of India

LE Staff

Hyderabad, August 26, 2021: The Telangana High Court has ruled that in refusing to amend the Bill of Entry (BoE) under section 149 of the Customs Act to enable the importer (petitioner) to claim refund of the excess duty paid, the Assessing Authority has caused great injustice to the petitioner.

A Division Bench of Justice M S Ramachandra Rao & Justice T Vinod Kumar observed that such refusal by the Customs Department amounts to violation of Articles 14, 19(1)(g), 265 and 300A of the Constitution of India and also the Customs Act, 1962. 

Going by the background of the case, at the time of import of mobile phones in the BoE, petitioner had not claimed any exemption. Instead he contended eligibility to avail the benefit of reduced rate of 1% CVD (Countervailing Duty) and sought to claim benefit of the Exemption Notification for import of Mobile handsets including cellular phones. 

However, the EDI System used for filing the Bills of Entry was not updated (as confirmed by the information received under RTI Act, 2005) to make available the benefit of the said Notification. Accordingly, the benefit of the Notification was not extended to petitioner due to deficiency in the system, and it was rather forced to pay CVD at merit rate. 

The Petitioner therefore requested the Department to amend 136 BoEs u/s 149 of the Customs Act to reassess the BoEs and grant subsequent refund, but in vain. 

Section 128 provides a remedy of appeal against any order passed by the Dy. Commissioner of Customs, who is lower in rank than a Commissioner of Customs, to the Commissioner (Appeals), therefore, the petitioner has a remedy of an appeal against the assessment of the BoEs in question, said the High Court. 

Similarly, section 149 is an additional remedy available to the petitioner to seek amendment of the BoEs subject to the condition that such amendment is sought on the basis of documentary evidence which was in existence at the time the goods were cleared, deposited or exported as the case may be, added the Court. 

The Division Bench therefore said that the stand of the respondents in the counter affidavit that only reassessment u/s 128 is the remedy available to the petitioner, and Section 149 cannot be invoked, is not tenable. 

Quoting the law declared by the Supreme Court in SRF Ltd. vs. Commissioner of Customs [Civil Appeal No.9440 of 2003 dated March 26, 2015], wherein the Apex Court granted entitlement to exemption from payment of CVD, the Bench said that such law unless made prospective in operation in its judgment, is always deemed to be the law of the land. 

The Bench went on to reiterate that the Assessing Officer/Assistant Commissioner is duly responsible to correctly determine the duty leviable in accordance with law before clearing the goods for Home consumption. 

The assessing officer instead, having failed in correctly determining the duty payable, has caused serious prejudice to the importer / petitioner at the first instance, added the Bench. 

Accordingly, the High Court issued mandamus to the Department to amend the subject Bills of Entry to reflect the rate of tax as 1%, within four weeks to enable the petitioner to seek refund of excess duty paid u/s 27 of Customs Act, 1962. 

Object of re-assessment can’t be narrowed down to cripple powers of AO conferred under Income Tax Act by exercising judicial review: Madras HC

Read Judgement: CAIRN INDIA LTD vs. DEPUTY DIRECTOR OF INCOME TAX 

LE Correspondent

Chennai, August 26, 2021: While emphasizing on the scope of judicial review, the Madras High Court has ruled that the scope for reopening of assessment cannot be narrowed down by the Courts to cripple the powers of the Assessing Officer (AO) conferred under the Income Tax Act

The Single Judge Bench of Justice S M Subramaniam observed that if reopenings are made within the scope of Section 147 of the Income Tax Act, then the AO is allowed to continue the reopening proceedings and conclude the same by providing opportunity to the assessee to defend their case. 

The observation came pursuant to a petition questioning the legal validity of the reopening notice issued under section 148 and the consequential order passed by the AO, on the ground of ‘change of opinion’. 

Going by the background of the case, the assessee company had filed its return which came to be processed u/s 143(1) accepting the returned income. Later, the case was selected for scrutiny and the assessment was set aside with the direction to re-compute the total income of assessee in as much as the assessment order in which deduction u/s 80-IB was granted was erroneous. 

Also, opining that the payments made to non-residents were in the nature of royalty and the assessee had deducted lesser tax from the payment to the Non-Residents, the AO calculated proportional disallowance u/s 40(a)(i). 

The Department being of the opinion that expenses so claimed and allowed led to excess deduction which resulted in escapement of income chargeable to tax within the corners of section 147. This led to initiation of reopening of assessment. 

After considering the arguments, Justice Subramaniam found that the reasons for reopening reveals that assessee had deducted lesser tax from the payment made to the Non-Residents. Since the issue of TDS deduction at the lower rate was not adjudicated by the AO, he had ‘reason to believe’ for reopening of assessment. 

Since the said issue was not considered by the Original Assessing authority and subsequently, noticed by the competent authority, the reopening of assessment is made in accordance with the requirements as contemplated u/s 147, added Justice Subramaniam.

The High Court further went on to reiterate that the circumstances as contemplated, providing wider scope for reopening of assessment, at no circumstances be narrowed down by the Court to cripple the powers of the AO conferred under the Act.

“Undoubtedly, the business and trading activities are being carried out in a calculated manner by the traders. The intricacies involved may be traced out even at later point of time. Such being the possible circumstances, the very purpose and object of Section 147 for reopening of assessment, if the income chargeable to tax escaped assessment cannot be narrowed down, so as to dilute the very object of the Act,” opined the Court. 

The Single Judge found that in the present case, the assessee has submitted its objections elaborately and the said objections were rejected on the ground that for the A.Y 2003-04, ADIT, International Taxation, Chennai, issued a Notice u/s 148 on similar ground that claim of the assessee as regards payment made towards geological studies, seismic data acquiring and processing and chartered hire charges would not fall for consideration u/s 44BB to go for TDA at the rate of 4%. On the contrary, the services fell within the definition of “fee for technical services”. 

When the AO could be able to trace out the material from and out of the materials submitted by the assessee, such new information or materials undoubtedly would provide the AO for ‘reason to believe’ to reopen the assessment. This being the factum established, adjudication on merits need not be entertained by the High Court in writ proceedings under Article 226 of the Constitution of India, added the Single Judge. Lastly, the High Court dismissed the petition opining that the scope of judicial review under Article 226 of the Constitution of India is to scrutinize the processes through which a decision is taken by the competent authority in consonance with the provisions of the law, but not the decision itself.

Larger Bench of Apex Court to decide applicability of cut-off date under Employees’ Pension Scheme for grant of benefits to retirees

Read judgment: The Employees Provident Fund Organization & Etc vs. Sunil Kumar B. & Etc

Pankaj Bajpai

New Delhi, August 26, 2021: While deciding whether applicability of a cut-off date under paragraph 11(3) of the Employees Pension Scheme and the dictum laid down by the Top Court in the decision of R.C. Gupta [(2018) 14 SCC 809] would act as the governing principle in matters related to retiral pension benefits or not, the Supreme Court has referred the matter to a Larger Bench for appropriate decision. 

A Division Bench of Justice Uday Umesh Lalit and Justice Ajay Rastogi observed that the judgment of the Kerala High Court which quashed the Employee’s Pension (Amendment) Scheme, 2014 holding it to be unreasonable, merits to be decided on the touchstone of the Krishena Kumar case [(1990) 4 SCC 207].  

The dispute arose when some employees on the eve of their retirement in the year 2005 took the plea that the proviso brought in by the amendment of 1996 to the Employees Provident Fund Act, was not within their knowledge and, therefore, they may be given the benefit thereof, particularly, when the employers contribution under the Act has been on actual salary and not on the basis of ceiling limit. 

This plea was negated by the Provident Fund Authority on the ground that the proviso visualized a cut-off date for exercise of option, namely, the date of commencement of the Scheme or from the date the salary exceeded the ceiling amount. As the request of the employees was subsequent to either of the said dates, the same was not acceded to.

The matter went before the High Court Division Bench which upheld the view of the Provident Fund Authority that under the proviso to Clause 11 (3) of the Pension Scheme there was a cut-off date. 

Ultimately, the Apex Court in 2016 came to the aid of the retirees and held that a beneficial Scheme ought not be allowed to be defeated by reference to a cut-off date, particularly, in a situation where the employer had deposited 12% of the actual salary and not 12% of the ceiling limit of Rs.5,000/- or Rs.6,500/- per month, as the case may be.

Challenging the same, the counsel for the Petitioner submitted that the difference between the Provident Fund Scheme on the one hand and the Pension Scheme on the other was well recognized. Under the former scheme, the contributions made by the employer and the employees during the employment of the employee would be made over to the employee along with interest accrued thereon at the time of his retirement. 

Thus, the obligation on the part of the operators of the Provident Fund Scheme would come to an end after the retirement of the employee, whereas the obligation under the Pension Scheme would begin when the employee retired, urged the counsel. 

It was also pleaded that under the former scheme, the liability was only to pay interest on the amount deposited and to make over the entire amount at the time of his retirement. On the contrary, in the latter scheme, it would be for the operators of the Pension Scheme to invest amount deposited in such a way that after the retirement of the concerned employee the invested amount would keep on giving sufficient returns so that the pension would be paid to the concerned employee not only during his life time but even to his family members after his death. 

The counsel highlighted that if the option under paragraph 11(3) of the Scheme, was to be afforded well after the cutoff date, it would create great imbalance and would amount to cross-subsidization by those who were regularly contributing to the Pension Scheme in favour of those who come at a later point in time and walk away with all the advantages.

It was further submitted that the emphasis on investment of the amount in both the funds would qualitatively be of different dimensions and it would not be a mere adjustment of amount to transfer from one fund to another as stated in the R.C. Gupta case (supra). 

After considering the arguments, the Top Court found that the submissions touching upon the applicability of the principle laid down in the decision in R.C. Gupta (supra), goes to the very root of the matter. 

“Sitting in a Bench of two Judges it would not be appropriate for us to deal with said submissions. The logical course would be to refer all these matters to a Bench of at least three Judges so that appropriate decision can be arrived at,” added the Top Court. 

“The principal questions that arise for consideration are whether there would be a cut-off date under paragraph 11(3) of the Employees Pension Scheme and whether the decision in R.C. Gupta [(2018) 4 SCC 809] would be the governing principle on the basis of which all these matters must be disposed of,” opined the Division Bench. 

The Apex Court therefore directed the Registry to place these matters before the Chief Justice for requisite directions so that these matters can be placed before a larger Bench.

Denying bail to man accused in NDPS case, Punjab & Haryana HC directs lower court to expedite trial as accused in custody since 2015

Read Order: Gurdev Singh alias Debu v. State of Punjab 

LE Staff

Chandigarh, August 25, 2021: While dismissing the bail application of a man accused in a narcotics case, the Punjab and Haryana High Court has directed the lower court to conclude the trial in the matter within the next four months saying the accused cannot be denied the right to a free and speedy trial.

The petitioner, Gurdev Singh alias Debu, had sought regular bail for the second time in a case pertaining to an FIR dated July 9, 2015 under Section 22 of the NDPS Act, 1985, Sections 25/54/59 of Arms Act and 399, 402, 382, 420, 467, 468, 471, 120-B of the IPC, registered at Police Station Dehlon, District Ludhiana, Punjab.

The State Counsel opposed the plea by submitting that there was an alleged recovery of one kilogram of contraband Heroin, which falls in commercial quantity, and also one pistol 0.32 bore and two live cartridges from the petitioner, and also that the petitioner has suffered nine other convictions.

“In view of the above, this Court is not inclined to extend the benefit of bail in favour of the petitioner,” said the Bench of Justice Tejinder Singh Dhindsa.

The Bench, however, noted that the petitioner was arrested on 09.07.2015, investigation in the case has been concluded, the chargesheet has been presented and the charges were framed on 08.04.2016. 

“Trial is still going on. The right of every accused to a free and speedy trial cannot be denied,” the HC said.

“While dismissing the instant petition seeking regular bail, directions are issued to the trial Court to make an earnest endeavour to expedite the trial and in any case to conclude the same within a period of four months from today,” the Bench said.

High Court asks Panchkula court to not pronounce verdict in murder case against Gurmeet Ram Rahim after victim’s son alleges ‘manipulation’

Read Order: Jagseer Singh v. CBI And Anr

LE Staff 

Chandigarh, August 25, 2021: The Punjab and Haryana High Court has restricted a Special CBI Court in Panchkula from pronouncing till further orders the judgement in a case pertaining to murder charges against self-proclaimed godman Baba Gurmeet Ram Rahim Singh. 

The High Court’s decision came in response to a petition filed by Jagseer Singh, son of Ranjeet Singh who was allegedly murdered by Ram Rahim, seeking transfer of the case from the Court of Special Judge, CBI, Panchkula to any other CBI Court in the States of Haryana, Punjab or U.T., Chandigarh.

The transfer has been sought on several grounds including that the case is pending for arguments since December, 2019 and has been adjourned a number of times. Even the Public Prosecutor has been seeking time, the petitioner’s counsel contended. 

The senior counsel appearing for the petitioner alleged that everything has been “manipulated” through the respondent No.2 — K.P. Singh, Public Prosecutor for the CBI — and that he has been interfering in the administration of justice and is influencing the entire proceedings.

“Though, some personal oral aspersions are also made against the Special Judge, however, the same are not recorded in this order as those are not stated on oath by the petitioner,” the Bench of Justice Arvind Singh Sangwan noted.

“Learned senior counsel for the petitioner has, thus, submitted that the petitioner has reasonable apprehension that he may not get justice from the Special Judge, CBI Court, Panchkula,” the Bench added.

The High Court thus issued notice to the Presiding Officer/Special Judge, CBI, Panchkula seeking his response and restraining him from pronouncing the judgement in the matter as scheduled on August 26, 2021. The HC listed the case for next hearing on August 27, 2021.

The High Court also directed that the CBI will also file a specific affidavit about the appointment of K.P. Singh, Public Prosecutor for CBI Court at Panchkula, along with his posting order with the reply, if any.

The case here pertains to an FIR dated 10.07.2002 registered under Sections 302, 34, 120-B IPC at Police Station Sadar Thanesar, District Kurukshetra (Haryana)  and a case dated 03.12.2003 as per which Ranjeet Singh was murdered by Baba Gurmeet Ram Rahim in 2002. 

Gurmeet Ram Rahim Singh already stands convicted for 20 years rigorous imprisonment regarding the allegation of rape of two women followers by a judgement dated 28.08.2017 and also stands convicted for life regarding murder of a Sirsa based journalist Ram Chander Chatterpati, who had published an article in his newspaper, regarding sexual exploitation of Sadhvis in Dera. 

According to the petitioner’s counsel in the present case, the accused suspected that Ranjeet Singh was behind the circulation of the anonymous letter in this regard.