Read Order: Juhi Dubey vs. State of U.P & 3 Ors.
LE Staff
Prayagraj, August 13, 2021: The Allahabad High Court has directed the Registrar, Deen Dayal Upadhyay Gorakhpur University, to take a decision to provide sports quota for LL.M. Course also in addition to the LL.B. course, in support of sportspersons who could in the future win laurels for the country.
The High Court in its order mentioned the successes of Indian sportspersons in the international arena, such as the recently concluded Olympic games in Tokyo, Japan and the Indian Women’s Cricket Team’s successful performances.
The order came against a petition challenging denial of benefit of sports quota for admission in the Post Graduate Course in Law on the ground that no such quota is provided for said course.
A Single Bench of Justice Saurabh Shyam Shamshery observed that it is expected from that University that such bright sportspersons should be given benefit of sports quota even in Post Graduate Course of LL.M.
Petitioner, a girl, is a University and State Level Cricketer, and was the beneficiary of sports quota in LL.B. Course which she had successfully passed in the year 2020. Since she was not granted benefit of sports quota for admission in LL.M., she approached the High Court.
The counsel for the University submitted that quota is provided faculty-wise and entire quota of two seats is for LL.B. Course. He, however, accepted that an appropriate decision can be taken at the University level regarding sports quota in LL.M. Course also.
Justice Shamshery noted that “people of this country are welcoming the sports persons who have participated and come victorious from Olympic-2020, which has recently concluded in Tokyo”.
“Union of India has initiated a Khelo India Programme which has been introduced to revive the sports culture in India at the grass root level by building strong frame work for sports played in the country and to establish India as a grate sporting nation,” observed Justice Shamshery.
The High Court reiterated that State as well as Union Governments are also helping the upcoming sports persons and it is hoped that even in upcoming international sports events including cricket, the country will get more medals, awards and trophies.
Therefore, considering that sportspersons of this country are doing very well even in international level, the High Court passed a direction to the University to decide on providing sports quota for LL.M Course.
Read Judgment: Anand Kumar Tiwari & Ors vs. High Court of Madhya Pradesh & Ors
Pankaj Bajpai
New Delhi, August 13, 2021: While upholding the decision of the High Court in adopting the principle of Rule 12 (1) of the Madhya Pradesh Civil Services (General Condition of Service) Rules, 1961, the Supreme Court has ruled that in the absence of any rule for determining inter-se seniority of direct recruits and promotees, the date of appointment/promotion can be taken into account for fixing seniority.
A Division Bench of Justice L Nageswara Rao and Justice Aniruddha Bose observed that realizing that the principle of continuous officiation is well settled, especially where inter-se seniority is not dealt with in the Rules, the Full Court of the High Court correctly approved the resolution of the Special Committee and after the introduction of the 2017 Rules, seniority inter-se direct recruits and promotees shall be determined on the basis of Roster.
The observations came pursuant to an order of the High Court of Madhya Pradesh determining the inter-se seniority of direct recruited and promotee District Judges through a Limited Competitive Examination (LCE).
The Petitioners in the present case were directly recruited as District Judges to the Madhya Pradesh Higher Judicial Services. Later, a provisional gradation list of the District Judges was issued, wherein the Petitioners were shown as seniors to those District Judges who were promoted through LCE. This led to a representation made on behalf of the District Judges promoted through LCE for altering the gradation list and showing them as seniors to the direct recruits.
The Administrative Committee accepted the representation and resolved to give seniority to three promotees through LCE over direct recruits. Then the Full Court approved the recommendation made by the Special Committee regarding the inter-se seniority of the District Judges.
Therefore, the main grievance of the Petitioners pertains to the order by which the seniority list was issued showing the Petitioners below the District Judges who were promoted through LCE in the year 2009.
The delay that occurred in the amendment of Rules cannot be detrimental to the interest of the directly recruited District Judges, and, therefore, according to the Petitioners, the seniority of District Judges has to be re-determined on the basis of roster by retrospective effect being given to the Madhya Pradesh Higher Judicial Services (Recruitment and Conditions of Service) Rules, 2017.
The delay in the decision taken by the High Court to bring the seniority rule in accord with the directions given by the Supreme Court in All India Judges’ Association & Ors. v. Union of India and Ors on the ground of pendency of SLP before this Court is not justified, observed the Top Court.
The Bench said that the Petitioners are not entitled to the relief of the 2017 Rules being given retrospective effect.
According to Rule 11 (1) of the 2017 Rules, the relative seniority of members of service working on the date of commencement of the Rules shall not be disturbed. The roster shall be prepared and maintained only after the commencement of operation of the Rules. The Petitioners cannot claim that their seniority has to be reworked on the basis of roster as directed by this Court in All India Judges’ Association case, added the Bench.
Therefore, the Apex Court dismissed the petition opining that in the absence of any rule for determination of inter-se seniority, continuous officiation is a well-accepted principle.
Read Judgement: Union of India & Anr. vs Onkar Nath Dhar
LE Staff
New Delhi, August 13, 2021: The Supreme Court has ruled that the right to shelter does not mean the right to government accommodation, as it is meant for serving officers and officials and not for retirees as a benevolence and distribution of largesse.
A Division Bench of Justice Hemant Gupta and Justice A.S. Bopanna observed that government accommodation is meant for the serving government employees to facilitate the discharge of their duties, and is not meant for the retirees.
The Apex Court said that in the absence of any policy of allotment of government accommodation to a retired government servant, who may be victim of terrorism, the order passed by the Punjab & Haryana High Court calling accommodation to the retirees is wholly arbitrary and irrational being at the cost of serving Officers.
These observations came pursuant to a decision of a Single Bench keeping eviction of Respondent (Dhar) at abeyance observing that it was not possible for Dhar to return to his own State of Jammu and Kashmir and henceforth putting the appellants at liberty to provide alternative accommodation to Dhar on nominal licence fee in Faridabad, which was affirmed by the Division Bench of the High Court of Punjab & Haryana.
Dhar, a Kashmiri migrant, shifted to Jammu in 1989 or so, and was transferred to the office of the Intelligence Bureau in Delhi. Later he was transferred to Faridabad where he was allotted a government accommodation. On attaining the age of superannuation from service, he gave representation to allow him to retain the government accommodation, which was allowed for another one year. Dhar further submitted another representation seeking retention of the house allotted to him on a nominal licence fee till the circumstances prevailing in Jammu & Kashmir improve and the Government makes it possible for him to return to his native place.
Later, Dhar was served with a notice under the Public Premises (Eviction of Unauthorized Occupant) Act, 1971 for eviction. However, the same was stayed by the ADJ, Delhi. An objection was raised of territorial jurisdiction of the Delhi Court. Subsequently, the Single Judge of High Court allowed his request for accommodation, which stood confirmed by the Division Bench of the High Court of Punjab & Haryana.
The Apex Court observed that the Central Government would be free to frame a rehabilitation scheme specifically for such retired employees like the respondents and in such a scheme, it can specify the terms and conditions on which such persons would be entitled to rehabilitate/alternate residence, which may include the term that these respondents or their family members do not have any residence in any part of the country.
At the same time, the Apex Court made it clear that it would be open to the Government to specify the nature of accommodation to which such retired Government servants would be entitled to or the place where they would be rehabilitated which may not necessarily be in Delhi but can be even in the NCR region.
After the scheme is framed, the cases of the respondents can be scrutinized in terms of that scheme and those not found eligible for rehabilitation in terms thereof can be ousted from the present accommodation, added the Top Court.
Justice Gupta highlighted that the basic question to be determined is whether the allotment given to an employee was on out-of-turn basis or not. In case it was to be so, it is apparent that unless an exception is made, the allottee has neither the right to stay, nor the right to occupy the premises.
“We hope that coming years would not see any scam or misuse of power in making allotments of government quarters. The trust which is reposed in this context on high public functionaries would be discharged, we are sure, only to advance the object of providing of suitable conditions of work to government employees so that the Government is run on even keel; and shelter, which is a very pressing necessity of any human being, would not come to be denied if the same is otherwise due to the incumbent,” opined the Apex Court.
Justice Gupta went on to observe that it is unfortunate that the employees, officers, representatives of people and other high dignitaries continue to stay in the residential accommodation provided by the Government of India though they are no longer entitled to such accommodation.
Reiterating that the unauthorized occupants must recollect that rights and duties are correlative as the rights of one person entail the duties of another person similarly the duty of one person entails the rights of another person, Justice Gupta said that the Government accommodation could not have been allotted to a person who had demitted office.
The Top Court therefore concluded that the order of the Punjab & Haryana High Court is erroneous on the basis of compassion showed to displaced persons on account of terrorist activities in the State.
“The compassion howsoever genuine does not give a right to a retired person from continuing to occupy a government accommodation,” the Bench said. It added that such directions of the Punjab & Haryana HC is de hors any policy of allotting accommodation to the migrants under the guise of the right to shelter which is clearly in excess of jurisdiction vested with the Courts.
Read judgment: Umesh Chandra &Ors vs. State of Uttarakhand
LE Staff
New Delhi, August 13, 2021: While quashing the conviction under sections 395 & 397 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), the Supreme Court has held that mere identification in the test identification parade cannot form the substantive basis for conviction unless there are other facts and circumstances corroborating the identification.
A Division Bench of Justice Navin Sinha and Justice Subhash Reddy ordered the release of Appellants, noticing the very casual manner in which the Police conducted the investigation by Test Identification Parade (TIP) supported by a claim of recovery to link the two events but failed miserably to establish either.
The Apex Court very clearly mentioned that the TIP, a part of the investigation, cannot be said to have been proved much unless it was held in accordance with the law. There cannot be repeated TIPs till such time that the prosecution is successful in obtaining identification of the accused, added the Court.
The Division Bench found it “extremely disturbing” that both the Trial Court and the High Court did not go into this aspect at all to satisfy themselves if any TIP had been proved to have been held at all and that too in accordance with the law.
These observations came pursuant to the sentence of seven years awarded to four accused convicted u/s 395 and 397 of IPC, for committing dacoity.
The incident took place in the house of Hukumchand, the informant, wherein seven accused intruded and looted cash and jewelry, and fled. This led to lodging of FIR, whereby the accused were arrested.
They were stated to have confessed having committed dacoity and looting cash and jewelry which were recovered from them along with weapons on their person.
During the pendency of the Trial, the informant passed away and the accused were identified in a TIP. It was on the basis of this identification that their conviction had followed. However, the recovery not having been proved as the original seizure memo was never produced, they were acquitted of the charge u/s 412 IPC. The appellants were also acquitted of the charge under the Arms Act.
The appellants had vehemently submitted that the conviction based on the TIP would be unsustainable as no TIP had been proved to have been held in accordance with law.
It was further put forth that in the trial of two acquitted accused, one prosecution witness had turned hostile denying identification of the recovered items or the accused in the TIP, stating that his signature was obtained on it by the police.
On the other hand, acknowledging that acquittal u/s 412 IPC was not questioned, the State submitted that it would not be very relevant once the identification of the appellants stood established in the TIP which was held properly after covering the face of the accused.
After considering the submissions, the Apex Court found that the FIR was registered against unknown persons and the case of the prosecution solely rested on the identification in the TIP.
The Bench also conceded that the acquittal of the appellants u/s 412 IPC and the Arms Act had attained finality. No doubt the test identification parade was conducted within about a month of the occurrence. It was also to be kept in mind that one prosecution witness was a minor aged about 13 years at the time of occurrence, added the Bench.
The Top Court said that a test identification parade u/s 9 of the Evidence Act is not substantive evidence in a criminal prosecution but is only corroborative evidence, and the purpose of holding a test identification parade during the stage of investigation is only to ensure that the investigating agency prima facie was proceeding in the right direction where the accused may be unknown or there was a fleeting glance of the accused.
“But more important than that, the test identification parade being a part of the investigation, has to be proved by the prosecution as having been held in accordance with law. The onus lies on the prosecution to establish that the TIP was held in accordance with law. It is only after the prosecution prima facie establishes a valid TIP having been held, the question of considering any objection to the same arises. If the prosecution has failed to establish that a TIP was properly held by examining the witnesses to the same, there is nothing for the accused to disprove,” opined the Top Court.
In the TIP, the primary witnesses, who are wife and son of the informant, both of them are stated to have been present in the house when the occurrence took place, did not identify any of the appellants.
What the Court had before it was identification by a minor boy and that too in the 3rd and 4th rounds insofar as the present appellants were concerned. In the nature of the TIP held it is completely non est in the law and the benefit has to go to the accused, noted the Bench.
The Court also noted a Magistrate was stated to have conducted the TIP but he was not examined. No explanation was forthcoming as to why the Magistrate was not examined. The only evidence available was that of the Station House Officer that during the investigation the TIP was held in the District Jail, Nainital and he identified the proceedings in the Court.
According to the Bench, the identification of the proceedings was irrelevant as obviously he could not have been present during the TIP.
Thus, the Apex Court refused to uphold the conviction and also commented that there was a marked similarity on facts in the present case with Iqbal and Another vs. State of Uttar Pradesh, wherein doubting the identification in the TIP, coupled with failure to produce corroborative substantive evidence like recovery of the stolen goods or the weapons, the conviction was held to be unsustainable.
Read Judgment: Bajaj Allianz General Insurance Company Private Ltd vs. Union Of India & Ors
Pankaj Bajpai
New Delhi, August 13, 2021: The Supreme Court took note of the submissions canvassing the matter of concern which arose in Tamil Nadu on account of misappropriation of amounts from the Pattukottai Court due to the failure of the insurance companies to furnish the MCOP numbers and stating only the UTR numbers of the deposits.
Accordingly, a Division Bench of Justice Sanjay Kishan Kaul and Justice Hrishikesh Roy called for submission of the directions sought by the counsel, in order to facilitate the scrutiny of payment by insurance companies in Motor Accident Claim Tribunal (MACT) cases.
The Bench also asked the ASG to examine the possibility of withdrawing the exemption from insurance provided to public transport vehicles, which leads to compensation not being paid for long periods of time in case of road accidents.
The SC listed the matter for further directions on October 26, 2021.
During the hearing earlier this month, the counsel solicited the attention of the Apex Court by stating that the matter is being examined in a larger context and an agreed template for the insurance companies to make the deposits will be finalized at a pan India level.
Two main suggestions which were adverted, comprise of a certificate of disability of victims and relaxation in TDS deduction on compensation award.
It was proposed that the certificate of disability of victims through the district medical board will bring some uniformity and to keep out stock witnesses as medical experts. Further, relaxation was sought to bring uniformity on the issue of tax deduction at source in case of non-availability of PAN number which attracts 20% deduction.
One of the aspects raised by counsel is that the States may respond by specifying whether the direction issued by the Court have been circulated to the local police stations and the MACT Court so that everyone is aware of the same and the process works to its full capacity.
The counsel therefore urged that these proposals may be explored by the ASG to make appropriate suggestions.
The Apex Court found that the vehicles of the State Corporations which run public transport are not insured because of exemption provided and, as a result thereof, compensation is not paid for long period of time as most of these Corporations are running in losses.
In fact, there are numerous illustrations where the vehicles had to be attached for coercive recovery from the Corporations to make payments to the claimants, noted the Bench.
The Division Bench therefore asked the ASG to examine the possibility of either withdrawing the exemption or for a mechanism to ensure that sufficient fund pool is available with these Corporations for meeting their liabilities towards the claimants.
The Top Court also noted from the submission that the online mediation groups would be advising the insurance companies and it would be binding on the insurance companies while the claimant has the option to accept it or not.
Read Order: Jagroop Singh @ Jamba v. State of Punjab
LE Correspondent
Chandigarh, August 13, 2021: The Punjab and Haryana High Court has denied bail in a case under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act as the quantity of contraband recovered from the conscious possession of the petitioner falls in the category of commercial quantity.
The petitioner was arrested in a case pertaining to an FIR dated 10.08.2020 under Sections 22, 27 and 29 of the NDPS Act, at Police Station Tallewal, Punjab’s Barnala district.
As per the prosecution, secret information was received that the petitioner, Jagroop Singh @ Jamba, was involved in the sale of banned intoxicant tablets in various villages. A check-post was laid and petitioner was apprehended. From the possession of the petitioner, 180 tablets of Clovidol 100 SR and 1020 intoxicant tablets of Lomotil were recovered and he was arrested at the spot.
The counsel for the petitioner argued that he has been behind bars since 10.08.2020 and due to the pandemic situation, no evidence of the prosecution has been recorded in the present case. As such, a prayer has been made for grant of regular bail to the petitioner.
On the other hand, the State counsel resisted the claim for bail and submitted that the extent of recovery from the petitioner falls under ‘commercial quantity’ and rigours of Section 37 of the NDPS Act are attracted.
Deciding the matter, the bench of Justice Archana Puri observed that undisputedly, the extent of recovery from the petitioner falls in ‘commercial quantity’, and is much beyond the bracket of commercial quantity.
The High Court cited the decision rendered by the Apex Court in State of Kerala etc. vs. Rajesh etc.,, wherein, it has been observed that liberal approach in granting bail in cases under the NDPS Act is uncalled for.
“In the case in hand, the quantity of contraband recovered from the conscious possession of the petitioner falls in the category of ‘commercial quantity’ as evident from the recitals of the FSL report. At this stage, there is nothing, so pointed out that there are reasonable grounds for believing that the petitioner is not guilty of an offence under the NDPS Act and also there is nothing, as such coming on record, which rules out the possibility to conclude that the petitioner is not likely to commit the offence, while on bail,” the bench noted.
“Considering the same, at this stage, no justifiable ground is made out to extend the concession of regular bail to the petitioner. Consequently, the present petition stands dismissed.
“However, as submitted by learned State counsel that the charge in the present case has been framed on 28.01.2021 and out of cited 13 witnesses in the list of witnesses, till date, no witness has been examined, therefore, keeping in view this factual position, it is expected from the trial court to conclude the trial expeditiously,” stated the bench.
Read Judgement: Surjeet Kaur and another v. State of Haryana and another
LE Correspondent
Chandigarh, August 13, 2021: The Punjab and Haryana High Court has permitted a woman to undergo medical termination of her 22-week pregnancy after it was contended that the foetus carried by her had been diagnosed with major congenital malformation – ‘amniotic sac rupture’ – resulting in leakage of amniotic fluid causing high risk to the mother due to severe womb infection.
The petitioner moved the High Court since the foetus was a little over 21 weeks in gestational age and legally medical termination of pregnancy could not be carried out.
The Permanent Medical Board for Medical Termination of Pregnancy, PGIMER, Chandigarh, with reference to the order passed on August 9, 2021, in this petition, was asked to examine the petitioner for an evaluation for advisability of medical termination of pregnancy.
The Report of the Medical Board made it clear that the period of gestation is 22 weeks and 3 days with single live intrauterine pregnancy with severe oligohydramnios (severely reduced amniotic fluid around the foetus) and distended renal pelvis.
The report suggested that severely reduced amniotic fluid before 22 weeks of gestation can lead to poorly developed lungs of the foetus (pulmonary hypoplasia) and reduced chances of survival at birth.
Hence, pregnancy termination was recommended as this condition could cause problems in both the patient and her foetus.
Now deciding upon the petitioner’s Appeal, the bench of Justice Lisa Gill has stated that the Permanent Medical Board has recommended that the petitioner may undergo medical termination of pregnancy at this stage due to amniotic sac rupture resulting in leakage of amniotic fluid causing high risk to the mother due to severe womb infection as well as to the foetus who can have poorly developed lungs and reduced chances of survival at birth.
It was also brought to the Court’s attention that the 32-year-old petitioner wishes to go ahead with medical termination of her pregnancy
Thus, keeping in view the categoric opinion of the Medical Board, the medical termination of pregnancy of the petitioner has been permitted by the Court.
It has also been directed by the HC that the Petitioner shall remain present at the office of the Medical Superintendent, PGIMER, Chandigarh on August 13,2021 at 10.00 a.m., for admission and necessary steps be taken for medical termination of pregnancy.
“Needless to say, due care and medical treatment be made available to petitioner no.1. In case petitioner no.1 needs any further care after the procedure, the same be also provided to her,” the Bench held.
On the submission regarding the situation that the petitioner is poor, the Bench has clarified that in case the petitioner is found eligible under any of the scheme/s as available in PGIMER, benefit thereof be extended to her.
Read judgment: K.Arulanantham vs. State by CBI State Crime Branch Chennai
Pankaj Bajpai
Chennai, August 12, 2021: The Madras High Court came down upon investigators of the petrifying Pollachi sexual assault case for committing the lapse of divulging names of the victims to the media, directing that they should be dealt with departmentally by initiating proceedings against them.
The Bench of Justice M. Dhandapani observed that “the pathetic situation that has unfolded since independence is that the women folk are not able to move out without fear even during the day time as their security and safety are at peril at the hands of antisocial elements, who prey on the women folk to satisfy their lust, as is reflected in the present case”.
The Pollachi sexual assault case refers to a 2019 case of rape and extortion of numerous women by a gang in Pollachi, Coimbatore, in Tamil Nadu. The gang enticed women into isolated places after befriending them on social media and sexually assaulted them and filmed the acts.
The observation came pursuant to a petition seeking enlargement on default bail, wherein the offence which was committed had created an errie atmosphere in the society and attracted many sections of the Indian Penal Code, the Prohibition of Harassment of Women Act and the Information Technology Act.
The bench dismissed the criminal original petition.
The offence in which the petitioner was implicated pertains to the act of various accused, including the petitioner, in sexually assaulting and abusing the victims, many in number, which has resulted in the registration of the crime (rape, sexual assault & extortion) by the Pollachi Town Police, which was, thereafter, transferred to the CBI vide notification issued by the Government of Tamil Nadu.
The Special Public Prosecutor submitted that in the case on hand, the gravity of the offence committed was of monstrous proportion, by persons who had terrorised the victims by their acts in committing indecent and inhuman acts.
The prosecution submitted that the High Court not only uphold justice, but equally with a view to safeguarding the interest of the victims and the witnesses who would be deposing in the trial, may issue directions to the State in consonance with the directions issued by the Supreme Court pertaining to the Witness Protection Scheme, 2018, formulated for this purpose, so that the safety and security of the victims and the witnesses are not jeopardized and that they could give evidence without fear or favour against the accused persons.
“Though the victim stands compensated, however, this Court is of the view that the said cost imposed on the said persons is not commensurate with the gravity of the offence committed by the concerned persons. The disclosure of the names of the victims by the investigating team over the media, has put the fate of the said victims in jeopardy and the violation is of such a magnitude that imposition of cost alone would not be sufficient,” observed Justice Dhandapani.
Hence, the High Court with a view to ensure the safety and security of the victims, who would be witnesses in the trial as also the other witnesses who would be deposing during the trial, issued various directions:
1. As undertaken by the CBI, all earnest efforts be made to commence the trial by the 1st week of September, 2021 and to that extent the CBI shall take all earnest efforts to apprehend all the persons, if not already apprehended and file necessary report before the commencement of the trial.
2. The trial court shall, during the course of hearing of such application, ensure that the name of the witness is not revealed to any other person, which is likely to lead to the identification of the witness.
3. The Witness Protection Measures as spelt out in in Part-II, Part-III, Part-IV and Part-V of the Witness Protection Scheme, 2018, shall be strictly adhered to once the competent authority has passed an order protecting the identity of the witness.
4. The State Government also shall ensure that the types of protection measures, as envisaged under Clause-7 of the Witness Protection Scheme, is strictly adhered to, so that the identity of the witness would be closely guarded pretrial and post-trial so that the safety and security of the victims and witnesses would stand protected.
5. The State shall also take all necessary steps for providing Live Link for taking deposition of the victims and the witnesses for the purposes of interacting with the competent authority as also for the purpose of deposing before the Court.
6. The Forensic Lab, which comes under the control of the State Government, shall submit the necessary reports relating to the items, which have been sent for analysis, to the CBI within a period of two weeks from the date of receipt of a copy of this order.
7. In view of the sensitivity of the case, the trial court shall take all necessary steps to conduct “In Camera Proceedings”, wherever necessary as provided under Clause 2 (f) of the Witness Protection Scheme.
8. The Government shall initiate appropriate departmental action forthwith against the then Superintendent of Police and also the other police personnel, who were involved in divulging the names of the victims and the accused to the media.
Read Order: Vikram And Another v. State Of Haryana And Others
LE Correspondent
Chandigarh, August 12, 2021: The Punjab and Haryana High Court has issued notice to the Haryana government on a petition by a man against the decision of the government authorities to deny him marriage registration on the ground that he was not of legal marriageable age when he tied the wedlock.
The petitioner Vikram, is now 30 years old and his wife Paramjeet Kaur is aged 34, and they have a child now. In their plea the couple contended that when they moved the application for registration of marriage with the local authorities in Karnal district, the registrar of marriages declined their plea on the ground that as per section 2(a) of the Haryana Compulsory Registration of Marriage Act 2008, the age of the boy should be 21 years and girl should be of 18 years.
But Vikram was aged 18 years when he solemnized marriage with Parmajeet Kaur in 2009.
The said action, the petitioners stated, is clearly violative of the settled position of law. Reference is made to decision dated 28.03.2008, titled Baljit Kaur Boparai and another Vs. State of Punjab and another in CWP-4238-2008 and decision dated 04.09.2019 titled Jyoti and another Vs. State of Haryana and others in CWP-26956-2017.
Ashish Yadav, Additional Advocate General Haryana, accepted notice on behalf of all the respondents and sought a short adjournment to seek instructions.
The bench of Justice Lisa Gill will hear the matter again on August 24, 2021.
Read Order: Alison Gomes vs. State of Goa & Ors
LE Staff
Mumbai, August 12, 2021: The Bombay High Court (Goa Bench) has ruled that insult of religion offered unwittingly or carelessly or without any deliberate or malicious intention to outrage the religious feelings of a particular class do not come within the scope of Section 295-A of the Indian Penal Code.
A Division Bench of Justice Sunil P. Deshmukh and Justice M.S. Sonak observed that Section 295-A (dealing with deliberate and malicious acts, intended to outrage religious feelings of any class by insulting its religion or religious beliefs) of IPC only punishes aggravated form of insult to religion when it is perpetrated with the deliberate and malicious intention of outraging the religious feelings of that class.
The Bench said that unless the FIR or complaint discloses the commission of a cognizable offense and not only a non-cognizable offense, the police authorities get no jurisdiction to register FIR or to undertake investigations without the order of a Magistrate as is contemplated u/s 155(2) of the Code.
The High Court made the observations while quashing an FIR against a musician alleging that the lyrics of his song had outraged religious sentiments. The FIR was registered on a complaint of a Member of the Goa Legislative Assembly alleging commission of offences punishable u/s 295-A and Section 500 of IPC.
It was claimed that a song by the petitioner floated on YouTube, deliberately and maliciously hurt and outraged the religious feelings of the Christian community, apart from being false and defamatory in nature.
After going through the contentions and precedents, the High Court observed that the allegations do not disclose the commission of a cognizable offense u/s 295-A of IPC and therefore, permitting the police authorities to investigate further would amount to an abuse of the criminal process.
Justice Sonak observed that in Ramji Lal Modi vs. State of Uttar Pradesh, the Supreme Court has made it clear that Section 295-A of IPC is not attracted in case of every act of insult or attempt to insult the religion or religious beliefs of a class of citizens but this Section only penalizes those acts of insults to or to those varieties of attempts to insult the religions or religious beliefs of a class of religions which are perpetrated with the deliberate and malicious intention of outraging the religious feelings of that class.
“This is a matter where the complainant has attempted to rely on a particular passage or rather, refer to a sentence here and a sentence there to allege that the Petitioner has committed an offense punishable u/s 295-A of IPC,” opined the HC Bench.
Settled principles which apply in the context of an offense u/s 295-A of IPC have been completely ignored by the police authorities at the time of registering the impugned FIR against the Petitioner, added Justice Sonak.
The High Court therefore quashed the FIR/complaint in exercise of the powers under Article 226 of the Constitution and Section 482 of CrPC, opining that even if all the allegations in the FIR/complaint are taken at their face value, they do not disclose the commission of a cognizable offense.
However, the Court accepted the complaint at least prima facie discloses the ingredients of the offense punishable u/s 500 (Punishment for defamation) of IPC.
Therefore, though the FIR/complaint were quashed, the High Court made it clear it will be open to the Respondent to take out appropriate proceedings in the context of his allegations against the Petitioner involving the offense punishable u/s 500 of IPC.
Read order: Chitrakala vs. State of Karnataka &Ors
LE Staff
Bengaluru, August 12, 2021: The Karnataka High Court has recently ruled that Section 66 of the Karnataka Municipal Act, 1976, can only be in reference to a delegation of ordinary powers, duties and functions, and not quasi-judicial powers of the Commissioner.
A Bench of Justice M. Nagaprasanna observed that quasi-judicial powers will have to be exercised only by such officer who is empowered to exercise them and not by any other authority.
“Manifold powers, duties and obligations are cast upon the Commissioner in terms of the Act, a few of them are quasi judicial in nature as the Commissioner is empowered to adjudicate upon the rights of the parties. Adjudication upon the rights of the parties cannot but be a power which is quasi judicial in nature. Therefore, quasi judicial power will have to be exercised only by such officer who is empowered to exercise and not by any other authority,” observed Justice Nagaprasanna.
These observations came pursuant to a petition challenging an order passed by the BBMP (Bruhat Bengaluru Mahanagara Palike) Commissioner, declining to accept the claim of the petitioner and directing that the activity of the petitioner performed in her residential premises cannot be allowed to continue.
The High Court had disposed of the petition with a direction to the BBMP to determine whether the activity conducted by the petitioner in her premises was permissible in terms of the notification dated March 20, 2015.
After the inspection of the premises of the petitioner by the Head of the Legal Cell, it was determined that the activities in the building in question which were Data Entry Operations, Data Research in Software and Financial Consultancy, could not be allowed to be continued, in view of the Government Notification.
Later on, the Commissioner passed an order declining to permit the activity that the petitioner was conducting in her residential premises.
The High Court found that proceedings pursuant to its direction were admittedly initiated and heard by the Head of Legal Cell and the Commissioner who did not hear the grievance or the matter, as directed by the High Court.
Therefore, the Court opined that this is a case where the Commissioner who did not hear the matter, decided it. It would fall foul of the rudimentary principle of ‘he who decides must hear’, added the Court.
The rule “the one who decides must hear” declared by the Constitution Bench in Gullapalli Nageswara Rao & Others v. Andhra Pradesh State Road Transport Corporation & Another, derives support from a famous case decided by the Supreme Court of United States in Morgan v. United States [(1936) 298 U.S. 468], wherein that Court invalidated a price-fixing order of Secretary of Agriculture merely on the ground that the Secretary himself had not personally heard or read any of the evidence or considered the arguments submitted but had decided the matter solely on the advice of his officials in consultations at which the objectors were not present, added the Bench.
Therefore, reiterating that the justification of the BBMP would not hold water as indisputably the Commissioner had never heard the parties, the High Court remitted the matter back to the hands of the Commissioner to hear the parties as directed by the High Court and pass appropriate orders in accordance with law.
The High Court, however, made it clear that setting aside of the order of the Commissioner would not however mean that the petitioner can restore the activity in the premises she was performing earlier.
Time for judiciary to introspect and see what can be done to restore people’s faith – Justice Lokur
Justice Madan B Lokur, was a Supreme Court judge from June 2012 to December 2018. He is now a judge of the non-resident panel of the Supreme Court of Fiji. He spoke to LegitQuest on January 25, 2020.
Q: You were a Supreme Court judge for more than 6 years. Do SC judges have their own ups and downs, in the sense that do you have any frustrations about cases, things not working out, the kind of issues that come to you?
A: There are no ups and downs in that sense but sometimes you do get a little upset at the pace of justice delivery. I felt that there were occasions when justice could have been delivered much faster, a case could have been decided much faster than it actually was. (When there is) resistance in that regard normally from the state, from the establishment, then you kind of feel what’s happening, what can I do about it.
Q: So you have had the feeling that the establishment is trying to interfere in the matters?
A: No, not interfering in matters but not giving the necessary importance to some cases. So if something has to be done in four weeks, for example if reply has to be filed within four weeks and they don’t file it in four weeks just because they feel that it doesn’t matter, and it’s ok if we file it within six weeks how does it make a difference. But it does make a difference.
Q: Do you think this attitude is merely a lax attitude or is it an infrastructure related problem?
A: I don’t know. Sometimes on some issues the government or the establishment takes it easy. They don’t realise the urgency. So that’s one. Sometimes there are systemic issues, for example, you may have a case that takes much longer than anticipated and therefore you can’t take up some other case. Then that necessarily has to be adjourned. So these things have to be planned very carefully.
Q: Are there any cases that you have special memories of in terms of your personal experiences while dealing with the case? It might have moved you or it may have made you feel that this case is really important though it may not be considered important by the government or may have escaped the media glare?
A: All the cases that I did with regard to social justice, cases which concern social justice and which concern the environment, I think all of them were important. They gave me some satisfaction, some frustration also, in the sense of time, but I would certainly remember all these cases.
Q: Even though you were at the Supreme Court as a jurist, were there any learning experiences for you that may have surprised you?
A: There were learning experiences, yes. And plenty of them. Every case is a learning experience because you tend to look at the same case with two different perspectives. So every case is a great learning experience. You know how society functions, how the state functions, what is going on in the minds of the people, what is it that has prompted them to come the court. There is a great learning, not only in terms of people and institutions but also in terms of law.
Q: You are a Judge of the Supreme Court of Fiji, though a Non-Resident Judge. How different is it in comparison to being a Judge in India?
A: There are some procedural distinctions. For example, there is a great reliance in Fiji on written submissions and for the oral submissions they give 45 minutes to a side. So the case is over within 1 1/2 hours maximum. That’s not the situation here in India. The number of cases in Fiji are very few. Yes, it’s a small country, with a small number of cases. Cases are very few so it’s only when they have an adequate number of cases that they will have a session and as far as I am aware they do not have more than two or three sessions in a year and the session lasts for maybe about three weeks. So it’s not that the court sits every day or that I have to shift to Fiji. When it is necessary and there are a good number of cases then they will have a session, unlike here. It is then that I am required to go to Fiji for three weeks. The other difference is that in every case that comes to the (Fiji) Supreme Court, even if special leave is not granted, you have to give a detailed judgement which is not the practice here.
Q: There is a lot of backlog in the lower courts in India which creates a problem for the justice delivery system. One reason is definitely shortage of judges. What are the other reasons as to why there is so much backlog of cases in the trial courts?
A: I think case management is absolutely necessary and unless we introduce case management and alternative methods of dispute resolution, we will not be able to solve the problem. I will give you a very recent example about the Muzaffarpur children’s home case (in Bihar) where about 34 girls were systematically raped. There were about 17 or 18 accused persons but the entire trial finished within six months. Now that was only because of the management and the efforts of the trial judge and I think that needs to be studied how he could do it. If he could do such a complex case with so many eyewitnesses and so many accused persons in a short frame of time, I don’t see why other cases cannot be decided within a specified time frame. That’s case management. The second thing is so far as other methods of disposal of cases are concerned, we have had a very good experience in trial courts in Delhi where more than one lakh cases have been disposed of through mediation. So, mediation must be encouraged at the trial level because if you can dispose so many cases you can reduce the workload. For criminal cases, you have Plea Bargaining that has been introduced in 2009 but not put into practice. We did make an attempt in the Tis Hazari Courts. It worked to some extent but after that it fell into disuse. So, plea bargaining can take care of a lot of cases. And there will be certain categories of cases which we need to look at carefully. For example, you have cases of compoundable offences, you have cases where fine is the punishment and not necessarily imprisonment, or maybe it’s imprisonment say one month or two month’s imprisonment. Do we need to actually go through a regular trial for these kind of cases? Can they not be resolved or adjudicated through Plea Bargaining? This will help the system, it will help in Prison Reforms, (prevent) overcrowding in prisons. So there are a lot of avenues available for reducing the backlog. But I think an effort has to be made to resolve all that.
Q: Do you think there are any systemic flaws in the country’s justice system, or the way trial courts work?
A: I don’t think there are any major systemic flaws. It’s just that case management has not been given importance. If case management is given importance, then whatever systematic flaws are existing, they will certainly come down.
Q; And what about technology. Do you think technology can play a role in improving the functioning of the justice delivery system?
I think technology is very important. You are aware of the e-courts project. Now I have been told by many judges and many judicial academies that the e-courts project has brought about sort of a revolution in the trial courts. There is a lot of information that is available for the litigants, judges, lawyers and researchers and if it is put to optimum use or even semi optimum use, it can make a huge difference. Today there are many judges who are using technology and particularly the benefits of the e-courts project is an adjunct to their work. Some studies on how technology can be used or the e-courts project can be used to improve the system will make a huge difference.
Q: What kind of technology would you recommend that courts should have?
A: The work that was assigned to the e-committee I think has been taken care of, if not fully, then largely to the maximum possible extent. Now having done the work you have to try and take advantage of the work that’s been done, find out all the flaws and see how you can rectify it or remove those flaws. For example, we came across a case where 94 adjournments were given in a criminal case. Now why were 94 adjournments given? Somebody needs to study that, so that information is available. And unless you process that information, things will just continue, you will just be collecting information. So as far as I am concerned, the task of collecting information is over. We now need to improve information collection and process available information and that is something I think should be done.
Q: There is a debate going on about the rights of death row convicts. CJI Justice Bobde recently objected to death row convicts filing lot of petitions, making use of every legal remedy available to them. He said the rights of the victim should be given more importance over the rights of the accused. But a lot of legal experts have said that these remedies are available to correct the anomalies, if any, in the justice delivery. Even the Centre has urged the court to adopt a more victim-centric approach. What is your opinion on that?
You see so far as procedures are concerned, when a person knows that s/he is going to die in a few days or a few months, s/he will do everything possible to live. Now you can’t tell a person who has got terminal cancer that there is no point in undergoing chemotherapy because you are going to die anyway. A person is going to fight for her/his life to the maximum extent. So if a person is on death row s/he will do everything possible to survive. You have very exceptional people like Bhagat Singh who are ready to face (the gallows) but that’s why they are exceptional. So an ordinary person will do everything possible (to survive). So if the law permits them to do all this, they will do it.
Q: Do you think law should permit this to death row convicts?
A: That is for the Parliament to decide. The law is there, the Constitution is there. Now if the Parliament chooses not to enact a law which takes into consideration the rights of the victims and the people who are on death row, what can anyone do? You can’t tell a person on death row that listen, if you don’t file a review petition within one week, I will hang you. If you do not file a curative petition within three days, then I will hang you. You also have to look at the frame of mind of a person facing death. Victims certainly, but also the convict.
Q: From the point of jurisprudence, do you think death row convicts’ rights are essential? Or can their rights be done away with?
A: I don’t know you can take away the right of a person fighting for his life but you have to strike a balance somewhere. To say that you must file a review or curative or mercy petition in one week, it’s very difficult. You tell somebody else who is not on a death row that you can file a review petition within 30 days but a person who is on death row you tell him that I will give you only one week, it doesn’t make any sense to me. In fact it should probably be the other way round.
Q: What about capital punishment as a means of punishment itself?
A: There has been a lot of debate and discussion about capital punishment but I think that world over it has now been accepted, more or less, that death penalty has not served the purpose for which it was intended. So, there are very few countries that are executing people. The United States, Saudi Arabia, China, Pakistan also, but it hasn’t brought down the crime rate. And India has been very conservative in imposing the death penalty. I think the last 3-4 executions have happened for the persons who were terrorists. And apart from that there was one from Calcutta who was hanged for rape and murder. But the fact that he was hanged for rape and murder has not deterred people (from committing rape and murder). So the accepted view is that death penalty has not served the purpose. We certainly need to rethink the continuance of capital punishment. On the other hand, if capital punishment is abolished, there might be fake encounter killings or extra judicial killings.
Q: These days there is the psyche among people of ‘instant justice’, like we saw in the case of the Hyderabad vet who was raped and murdered. The four accused in the case were killed in an encounter and the public at large and even politicians hailed it as justice being delivery. Do you think this ‘lynch mob mentality’ reflects people’s lack of faith in the justice system?
A: I think in this particular case about what happened in Telangana, investigation was still going on. About what actually happened there, an enquiry is going on. So no definite conclusions have come out. According to the police these people tried to snatch weapons so they had to be shot. Now it is very difficult to believe, as far as I am concerned, that 10 armed policeman could not overpower four unarmed accused persons. This is very difficult to believe. And assuming one of them happened to have snatched a (cop’s) weapon, maybe he could have been incapacitated but why the other three? So there are a lot of questions that are unanswered. So far as the celebrations are concerned, the people who are celebrating, do they know for certain that they (those killed in the encounter) were the ones who did the crime? How can they be so sure about it? They were not eye witnesses. Even witnesses sometimes make mistakes. This is really not a cause for celebration. Certainly not.
Q: It seems some people are losing their faith in the country’s justice delivery system. How to repose people’s faith in the legal process?
A: You see we again come back to case management and speedy justice. Suppose the Nirbhaya case would have been decided within two or three years, would this (Telangana) incident have happened? One can’t say. The attack on Parliament case was decided in two or three years but that has not wiped out terrorism. There are a lot of factors that go into all this, so there is a need to find ways of improving justice delivery so that you don’t have any extremes – where a case takes 10 years or another extreme where there is instant justice. There has to be something in between, some balance has to be drawn. Now you have that case where Phoolan Devi was gangraped followed by the Behmai massacre. Now this is a case of 1981, it has been 40 years and the trial court has still not delivered a judgement. It’s due any day now, (but) whose fault is that. You have another case in Maharashtra that has been transferred to National Investigating Agency two years after the incident, the Bhima-Koregaon case. Investigation is supposedly not complete after two years also. Whose fault is that? So you have to look at the entire system in a holistic manner. There are many players – the investigation agency is one player, the prosecution is one player, the defence is one player, the justice delivery system is one player. So unless all of them are in a position to coordinate… you cannot blame only the justice delivery system. If the Telangana police was so sure that the persons they have caught are guilty, why did they not file the charge sheet immediately? If they were so sure the charge sheet should have been filed within one day. Why didn’t they do it?
Q: At the trial level, there are many instances of flaws in evidence collection. Do you think the police or whoever the investigators are, do they lack training?
A: Yes they do! The police lacks training. I think there is a recent report that has come out last week which says very few people (in the police) have been trained (to collect evidence).
Q: You think giving proper training to police to prepare a case will make a difference?
A: Yes, it will make a difference.
Q: You have a keen interest in juvenile justice. Unfortunately, a lot of heinous crimes are committed by juveniles. How can we correct that?
A: You see it depends upon what perspective we are looking at. Now these heinous crimes are committed by juveniles. Heinous crimes are committed by adults also, so why pick upon juveniles alone and say something should be done because juveniles are committing heinous crimes. Why is it that people are not saying that something should be done when adults are committing heinous crimes? That’s one perspective. There are a lot of heinous crimes that are committed against juveniles. The number of crimes committed against juveniles or children are much more than the crimes committed by juveniles. How come nobody is talking about that? And the people committing heinous crimes against children are adults. So is it okay to say that the State has imposed death penalty for an offence against the child? So that’s good enough, nothing more needs to be done? I don’t think that’s a valid answer. The establishment must keep in mind the fact that the number of heinous crimes against children are much more than those committed by juveniles. We must shift focus.
Q: Coming to NRC and CAA. Protests have been happening since December last year, the SC is waiting for the Centre’s reply, the Delhi HC has refused to directly intervene. Neither the protesters nor the government is budging. How do we achieve a breakthrough?
A: It is for the government to decide what they want to do. If the government says it is not going to budge, and the people say they are not going to budge, the stalemate could continue forever.
Q: Do you think the CAA and the NRC will have an impact on civil liberties, personal liberties and people’s rights?
A: Yes, and that is one of the reasons why there is protest all over the country. And people have realised that it is going to happen, it is going to have an impact on their lives, on their rights and that’s why they are protesting. So the answer to your question is yes.
Q: Across the world and in India, we are seeing an erosion of the value system upholding rights and liberties. How important is it for the healthy functioning of a country that social justice, people’s liberties, people’s rights are maintained?
A: I think social justice issues, fundamental rights are of prime importance in our country, in any democracy, and the preamble to our Constitution makes it absolutely clear and the judgement of the Supreme Court in Kesavananda Bharati and many other subsequent judgments also make it clear that you cannot change the basic structure of the Constitution. If you cannot do that then obviously you cannot take away some basic democratic rights like freedom of assembly, freedom of movement, you cannot take them away. So if you have to live in a democracy, we have to accept the fact that these rights cannot be taken away. Otherwise there are many countries where there is no democracy. I don’t know whether those people are happy or not happy.
Q: What will happen if in a democracy these rights are controlled by hook or by crook?
A: It depends upon how much they are controlled. If the control is excessive then that is wrong. The Constitution says there must be a reasonable restriction. So reasonable restriction by law is very important.
Q: The way in which the sexual harassment case against Justice Gogoi was handled was pretty controversial. The woman has now been reinstated in the Supreme Court as a staffer. Does this action of the Supreme Court sort of vindicate her?
A: I find this very confusing you know. There is an old joke among lawyers: Lawyer for the petitioner argued before the judge and the judge said you are right; then the lawyer for the respondent argued before the judge and the judge said you’re right; then a third person sitting over there says how can both of them be right and the judge says you’re also right. So this is what has happened in this case. It was found (by the SC committee) that what she said had no substance. And therefore, she was wrong and the accused was right. Now she has been reinstated with back wages and all. I don’t know, I find it very confusing.
Q: Do you think the retirement age of Supreme Court Judges should be raised to 70 years and there should be a fixed tenure?
A: I haven’t thought about it as yet. There are some advantages, there are some disadvantages. (When) You have extended age or life tenure as in the United States, and the Supreme Court has a particular point of view, it will continue for a long time. So in the United States you have liberal judges and conservative judges, so if the number of conservative judges is high then the court will always be conservative. If the number of liberal judges is high, the court will always be liberal. There is this disadvantage but there is also an advantage that if it’s a liberal court and if it is a liberal democracy then it will work for the benefit of the people. But I have not given any serious thought onthis.
Q: Is there any other thing you would like to say?
A: I think the time has come for the judiciary to sit down, introspect and see what can be done, because people have faith in the judiciary. A lot of that faith has been eroded in the last couple of years. So one has to restore that faith and then increase that faith. I think the judiciary definitely needs to introspect.
‘A major issue for startups, especially during fund raising, is their compliance with extant RBI foreign exchange regulations, pricing guidelines, and the Companies Act 2013.’- Aakash Parihar
Aakash Parihar is Partner at Triumvir Law, a firm specializing in M&A, PE/VC, startup advisory, international commercial arbitration, and corporate disputes. He is an alumnus of the National Law School of India University, Bangalore.
How did you come across law as a career? Tell us about what made you decide law as an option.
Growing up in a small town in Madhya Pradesh, wedid not have many options.There you either study to become a doctor or an engineer. As the sheep follows the herd, I too jumped into 11th grade with PCM (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics).However, shortly after, I came across the Common Law Admission Test (CLAT) and the prospect of law as a career. Being a law aspirant without any background of legal field, I hardly knew anything about the legal profession leave alone the niche areas of corporate lawor dispute resolution. Thereafter, I interacted with students from various law schools in India to understand law as a career and I opted to sit for CLAT. Fortunately, my hard work paid off and I made it to the hallowed National Law School of India University, Bangalore (NSLIU). Joining NLSIU and moving to Bangalorewas an overwhelming experience. However, after a few months, I settled in and became accustomed to the rigorous academic curriculum. Needless to mention that it was an absolute pleasure to study with and from someof the brightest minds in legal academia. NLSIU, Bangalore broadened my perspective about law and provided me with a new set of lenses to comprehend the world around me. Through this newly acquired perspective and a great amount of hard work (which is of course irreplaceable), I was able to procure a job in my fourth year at law school and thus began my journey.
As a lawyer carving a niche for himself, tell us about your professional journey so far. What are the challenges that new lawyers face while starting out in the legal field?
I started my professional journey as an Associate at Samvad Partners, Bangalore, where I primarily worked in the corporate team. Prior to Samvad Partners, through my internship, I had developed an interest towards corporate law,especially the PE/VC and M&A practice area. In the initial years as an associate at Samvad Partners and later at AZB & Partners, Mumbai, I had the opportunity to work on various aspects of corporate law, i.e., from PE/VC and M&A with respect to listed as well as unlisted companies. My work experience at these firms equipped and provided me the know-how to deal with cutting edge transactional lawyering. At this point, it is important to mention that I always had aspirations to join and develop a boutique firm. While I was working at AZB, sometime around March 2019, I got a call from Anubhab, Founder of Triumvir Law, who told me about the great work Triumvir Law was doing in the start-up and emerging companies’ ecosystem in Bangalore. The ambition of the firm aligned with mine,so I took a leap of faith to move to Bangalore to join Triumvir Law.
Anyone who is a first-generation lawyer in the legal industry will agree with my statement that it is never easy to build a firm, that too so early in your career. However, that is precisely the notion that Triumvir Law wanted to disrupt. To provide quality corporate and dispute resolution advisory to clients across India and abroad at an affordable price point.
Once you start your professional journey, you need to apply everything that you learnt in law schoolwith a practical perspective. Therefore, in my opinion, in addition to learning the practical aspects of law, a young lawyer needs to be accustomed with various practices of law before choosing one specific field to practice.
India has been doing reallywell in the field of M&A and PE/VC. Since you specialize in M&A and PE/VC dealmaking, what according to you has been working well for the country in this sphere? What does the future look like?
India is a developing economy, andM&A and PE/VC transactions form the backbone of the same. Since liberalization, there has been an influx of foreign investment in India, and we have seen an exponential rise in PC/VA and M&A deals. Indian investment market growth especially M&A and PE/VC aspects can be attributed to the advent of startup culture in India. The increase in M&A and PE/VC deals require corporate lawyersto handle the legal aspects of these deals.
As a corporate lawyer working in M&A and PE/VC space, my work ranges from drafting term-sheets to the transaction documents (SPA, SSA, SHA, BTA, etc.). TheM&A and PE/VC deal space experienced a slump during the first few months of the pandemic, but since June 2021, there has been a significant growth in M&A and PE/VC deal space in India. The growth and consistence of the M&A and PE/VC deal space in India can be attributed to several factors such as foreign investment, uncapped demands in the Indian market and exceptional performance of Indian startups.
During the pandemic many businesses were shut down but surprisingly many new businesses started, which adapted to the challenges imposed by the pandemic. Since we are in the recovery mode, I think the M&A and PE/VC deal space will reach bigger heights in the comingyears. We as a firm look forward to being part of this recovery mode by being part of the more M&A and PE/VC deals in future.
You also advice start-ups. What are the legal issues or challenges that the start-ups usually face specifically in India? Do these issues/challenges have long-term consequences?
We do a considerable amount of work with startupswhich range from day-to-day legal advisory to transaction documentation during a funding round. In India, we have noticed that a sizeable amount of clientele approach counsels only when there is a default or breach, more often than not in a state of panic. The same principle applies to startups in India, they normally approach us at a stage when they are about to receive investment or are undergoing due diligence. At that point of time, we need to understand their legal issues as well as manage the demands of the investor’s legal team. The majornon-compliances by startups usually involve not maintaining proper agreements, delaying regulatory filings and secretarial compliances, and not focusing on proper corporate governance.
Another major issue for startups, especially during fund raising, is their compliance with extant RBI foreign exchange regulations, pricing guidelines, and the Companies Act 2013. Keeping up with these requirements can be time-consuming for even seasoned lawyers, and we can only imagine how difficult it would be for startups. Startups spend their initial years focusing on fund-raising, marketing, minimum viable products, and scaling their businesses. Legal advice does not usually factor in as a necessity. Our firm aims to help startups even before they get off the ground, and through their initial years of growth. We wanted to be the ones bringing in that change in the legal sector, and we hope to help many more such startups in the future.
In your opinion, are there any specific India-related problems that corporate/ commercial firms face as far as the company laws are concerned? Is there scope for improvement on this front?
The Indian legal system which corporate/commercial firms deal with is a living breathing organism, evolving each year. Due to this evolving nature, we lawyers are always on our toes.From a minor amendment to the Companies Act to the overhaul of the foreign exchange regime by the Reserve Bank of India, each of these changes affect the compliance and regulatory regime of corporates. For instance, when India changed the investment route for countries sharing land border with India,whereby any country sharing land border with India including Hong Kong cannot invest in India without approval of the RBI in consultation with the central government,it impacted a lot of ongoing transactions and we as lawyers had to be the first ones to inform our clients about such a change in the country’s foreign investment policy. In my opinion, there is huge scope of improvement in legal regime in India, I think a stable regulatory and tax regime is the need for the hour so far as the Indian system is concerned. The biggest example of such a market with stable regulatory and tax regime is Singapore, and we must work towards emulating the same.
Your boutique law firm has offices in three different cities — Delhi NCR, Mumbai and Bangalore. Have the Covid-induced restrictions such as WFH affected your firm’s operations? How has your firm adapted to the professional challenges imposed by the pandemic-related lifestyle changes?
We have offices in New Delhi NCR and Mumbai, and our main office is in Bangalore. Before the pandemic, our work schedule involved a fair bit of travelling across these cities. But post the lockdowns we shifted to a hybrid model, and unless absolutely necessary, we usually work from home.
In relation to the professional challenges during the pandemic, I think it was a difficult time for most young professionals. We do acknowledge the fact that our firm survived the pandemic. Our work as lawyers/ law firms also involves client outreach and getting new clients, which was difficult during the lockdowns. We expanded our client outreach through digital means and by conducting webinars, including one with King’s College London on International Treaty Arbitration. Further, we also focused on client outreach and knowledge management during the pandemic to educate and create legal awareness among our clients.
‘It’s a myth that good legal advice comes at prohibitive costs. A lot of heartburn can be avoided if documents are entered into with proper legal advice and with due negotiations.’ – Archana Balasubramanian
Archana Balasubramanian is the founding partner of Agama Law Associates, a Mumbai-based corporate law firm which she started in 2014. She specialises in general corporate commercial transaction and advisory as well as deep sectoral expertise across manufacturing, logistics, media, pharmaceuticals, financial services, shipping, real estate, technology, engineering, infrastructure and health.
August 13, 2021:
Lawyers see companies ill-prepared for conflict, often, in India. When large corporates take a remedial instead of mitigative approach to legal issues – an approach utterly incoherent to both their size and the compliance ecosystem in their sector – it is there where the concept of costs on legal becomes problematic. Pre-dispute management strategy is much more rationalized on the business’ pocket than the costs of going in the red on conflict and compliances.
Corporates often focus on business and let go of backend maintenance of paperwork, raising issues as and when they arise and resolving conflicts / client queries in a manner that will promote dispute avoidance.
Corporate risk and compliance management is yet another elephant in India, which in addition to commercial disputes can be a drain on a company’s resources. It can be clubbed under four major heads – labour, industrial, financial and corporate laws. There are around 20 Central Acts and then specific state-laws by which corporates are governed under these four categories.
Risk and compliance management is also significantly dependent on the sector, size, scale and nature of the business and the activities being carried out.
The woes of a large number of promoters from the ecommerce ecosystem are to do with streamlining systems to navigate legal. India has certain heavily regulated sectors and, like I mentioned earlier, an intricate web of corporate risk and compliance legislation that can result in prohibitive costs in the remedial phase. To tackle the web in the preventive or mitigative phase, start-ups end up lacking the arsenal due to sheer intimidation from legal. Promoters face sectoral risks in sectors which are heavily regulated, risks of heavy penalties and fines under company law or foreign exchange laws, if fund raise is not done in a compliant manner.
It is a myth that good legal advice comes at prohibitive costs. Promoters are quick to sign on the dotted line and approach lawyers with a tick the box approach. A lot of heartburn can be avoided if documents are entered into with proper legal advice and with due negotiations.
Investment contracts, large celebrity endorsement contracts and CXO contracts are some key areas where legal advice should be obtained. Online contracts is also emerging as an important area of concern.
When we talk of scope, arbitration is pretty much a default mechanism at this stage for adjudicating commercial disputes in India, especially given the fixation of timelines for closure of arbitration proceedings in India. The autonomy it allows the parties in dispute to pick a neutral and flexible forum for resolution is substantial. Lower courts being what they are in India, arbitration emerges as the only viable mode of dispute resolution in the Indian commercial context.
The arbitrability of disputes has evolved significantly in the last 10 years. The courts are essentially pro-arbitration when it comes to judging the arbitrability of subject matter and sending matters to arbitration quickly.
The Supreme Court’s ruling in the Vidya Drolia case has significantly clarified the position in respect of tenancy disputes, frauds and consumer disputes. It reflects upon the progressive approach of the court and aims to enable an efficient, autonomous and effective arbitration environment in India.
Law firms stand for ensuring that the law works for business and not against it. Whatever the scope of our mandate, the bottom line is to ensure a risk-free, conflict-free, compliant and prepared enterprise for our client, in a manner that does not intimidate the client or bog them down, regardless of the intricacy of the legal and regulatory web it takes to navigate to get to that end result. Lawyers need to dissect the business of law from the work.
This really involves meticulous, detail-oriented, sheer hard work on the facts, figures, dates and all other countless coordinates of each mandate, repetitively and even to a, so-called, “dull” routine rhythm – with consistent single-mindedness and unflinching resolve.
As a firm, multiply that effort into volumes, most of it against-the-clock given the compliance heavy ecosystem often riddled with uncertainties in a number of jurisdictions. So the same meticulous streamlining of mandate deliverables has to be extrapolated by the management of the firm to the junior most staff.
Further, the process of streamlining itself has to be more dynamic than ever now given the pace at which the new economy, tech-ecosystem, business climate as well as business development processes turn a new leaf.
Finally, but above all, we need to find a way to feel happy, positive and energized together as a team while chasing all of the aforesaid dreams. The competitive timelines and volumes at which a law firm works, this too is a real challenge. But we are happy to face it and evolve as we grow.
We always as a firm operated on the work from anywhere principle. We believed in it and inculcated this through document management processes to the last trainee. This helped us shut shop one day and continue from wherever we are operating.
The team has been regularly meeting online (at least once a day). We have been able to channel the time spent in travelling to and attending meetings in developing our internal knowledge banks further, streamline our processes, and work on integrating various tech to make the practice more cost-effective for our clients.
Right to Disclosure – Importance & Challenges in Criminal Justice System – By Manu Sharma
Personal liberty is the most cherished value of human life which thrives on the anvil of Articles 14 and 21 of the Constitution of India (“the Constitution”). Once a person is named an accused, he faces the spectre of deprivation of his personal liberty and criminal trial. This threat is balanced by Constitutional safeguards which mandate adherence to the rule of law by the investigating agencies as well as the Court. Thus, any procedure which seeks to impinge on personal liberty must also be fair and reasonable. The right to life and personal liberty enshrined under article 21 of the Constitution, expanded in scope post Maneka Gandhi[1], yields the right to a fair trial and fair investigation. Fairness demands disclosure of anything relevant that may be of benefit to an accused. Further, the all-pervading principles of natural justice envisage the right to a fair hearing, which entails the right to a full defence. The right to a fair defence stems from full disclosure. Therefore, the right of an accused to disclosure emanates from this Constitutional philosophy embellished by the principles of natural justice and is codified under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (“Code”).
Under English jurisprudence, the duty of disclosure is delineated in the Criminal Procedure and Investigations Act, 1996, which provides that the prosecutor must disclose to the accused any prosecution material which has not previously been disclosed to the accused and which might reasonably be considered capable of undermining the case for the prosecution against the accused or of assisting the case for the accused, except if such disclosure undermines public interest.[2] Fairness ordinarily requires that any material held by the prosecution which weakens its case or strengthens that of the defendant, if not relied on as part of its formal case against the defendant, should be disclosed to the defence.[3] The duty of disclosure under common law contemplates disclosure of anything which might assist the defence[4], even if such material was not to be used as evidence[5]. Under Indian criminal jurisprudence, which has borrowed liberally from common law, the duty of disclosure is embodied in sections 170(2), 173, 207 and 208 of the Code, which entail the forwarding of material to the Court and supply of copies thereof to the accused, subject to statutory exceptions.
II. Challenges in Enforcement
The right to disclosure is a salient feature of criminal justice, but its provenance and significance appear to be lost on the Indian criminal justice system. The woes of investigative bias and prosecutorial misconduct threaten to render this right otiose. That is not to say that the right of an accused to disclosure is indefeasible, as certain exceptions are cast in the Code itself, chief among them being public interest immunity under section 173(6). However, it is the mischief of the concept of ‘relied upon’ emerging from section 173(5) of the Code, which is wreaking havoc on the right to disclosure and is the central focus of this article. The rampant misuse of the words “on which the prosecution proposes to rely’ appearing in section 173(5) of the Code, to suppress material favourable to the accused or unfavourable to the prosecution in the garb of ‘un-relied documents’ has clogged criminal courts with avoidable litigation at the very nascent stage of supply of copies of documents under section 207 of the Code. The erosion of the right of an accused to disclosure through such subterfuge is exacerbated by the limited and restrictive validation of this right by criminal Courts. The dominant issues highlighted in the article, which stifle the right to disclosure are; tainted investigation, unscrupulous withholding of material beneficial to the accused by the prosecution, narrow interpretation by Courts of section 207 of the Code, and denial of the right to an accused to bring material on record in the pre-charge stage.
A. Tainted Investigation
Fair investigation is concomitant to the preservation of the right to fair disclosure and fair trial. It envisages collection of all material, irrespective of its inculpatory or exculpatory nature. However, investigation is often vitiated by the tendencies of overzealous investigating officers who detract from the ultimate objective of unearthing truth, with the aim of establishing guilt. Such proclivities result in collecting only incriminating material during investigation or ignoring the material favourable to the accused. This leads to suppression of material and scuttles the right of the accused to disclosure at the very inception. A tainted investigation leads to miscarriage of justice. Fortunately, the Courts are not bereft of power to supervise investigation and ensure that the right of an accused to fair disclosure remains protected. The Magistrate is conferred with wide amplitude of powers under section 156(3) of the Code to monitor investigation, and inheres all such powers which are incidental or implied to ensure proper investigation. This power can be exercised suo moto by the Magistrate at all stages of a criminal proceeding prior to the commencement of trial, so that an innocent person is not wrongly arraigned or a prima facie guilty person is not left out.[6]
B. Suppression of Material
Indian courts commonly witness that the prosecution is partisan while conducting the trial and is invariably driven by the lust for concluding in conviction. Such predisposition impels the prosecution to take advantage by selectively picking up words from the Code and excluding material favouring the accused or negating the prosecution case, with the aid of the concept of ‘relied upon’ within section 173(5) of the Code. However, the power of the prosecution to withhold material is not unbridled as the Constitutional mandate and statutory rights given to an accused place an implied obligation on the prosecution to make fair disclosure.[7] If the prosecution withholds vital evidence from the Court, it is liable to adverse inference flowing from section 114 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (“Evidence Act). The prosecutor is expected to be guided by the Bar Council of India Rules which prescribe that an advocate appearing for the prosecution of a criminal trial shall so conduct the prosecution that it does not lead to conviction of the innocent. The suppression of material capable of establishment of the innocence of the accused shall be scrupulously avoided. [8]
C. Scope of S. 207
The scope of disclosure under section 207 has been the subject of fierce challenge in Indian Courts on account of the prosecution selectively supplying documents under the garb of ‘relied upon’ documents, to the prejudice of the defence of an accused. The earlier judicial trend had been to limit the supply of documents under section 207 of the Code to only those documents which were proposed to be relied upon by the prosecution. This view acquiesced the exclusion of documents which were seized during investigation, but not filed before the Court along with the charge sheet, rendering the right to disclosure a farce. This restrictive sweep fails to reconcile with the objective of a fair trial viz. discovery of truth. The scheme of the code discloses that Courts have been vested with extensive powers inter alia under sections 91, 156(3) and 311 to elicit the truth. Towards the same end, Courts are also empowered under Section 165 of the Evidence Act. Thus, the principle of harmonious construction warrants a more purposive interpretation of section 207 of the code. The Hon’ble Supreme Court expounded on the scope of Section 207 of the Code in the case of Manu Sharma[9] and held that documents submitted to the Magistrate under section 173(5) would deem to include the documents which have to be sent to the magistrate during the course of investigation under section 170(2). A document which has been obtained bona fide and has a bearing on the case of the prosecution should be disclosed to the accused and furnished to him to enable him to prepare a fair defence, particularly when non production or disclosure would affect administration of justice or prejudice the defence of the accused. It is not for the prosecution or the court to comprehend the prejudice that is likely to be caused to the accused. The perception of prejudice is for the accused to develop on reasonable basis.[10] Manu Sharma’s [supra] case has been relied upon in Sasikala [11] wherein it was held that the Court must concede a right to the accused to have access to the documents which were forwarded to the Court but not exhibited by the prosecution as they favoured the accused. These judgments seem more in consonance with the true spirit of fair disclosure and fair trial. However, despite such clear statements of law, courts are grappling with the judicial propensity of deviating from this expansive interpretation and regressing to the concept of relied upon. The same is evident from a recent pronouncement of the Delhi High Court where the ratios laid down in Manu Sharma & Sasikala [supra] were not followed by erroneously distinguishing from those cases.[12] Such “per incuriam” aberrations by High Court not only undermine the supremacy of the Apex Court, but also adversely impact the functioning of the district courts over which they exercise supervisory jurisdiction. Hopefully in future Judges shall be more circumspect and strictly follow the law declared by the Apex Court.
D. Pre-Charge Embargo
Another obstacle encountered in the enforcement of the right to disclosure is the earlier judicial approach to stave off production or consideration of any additional documents not filed alongwith the charge sheet at the pre-charge stage, as the right to file such material was available to the accused only upon the commencement of trial after framing of charge.[13] At the pre-charge stage, Court could not direct the prosecution to furnish copies of other documents[14] It was for the accused to do so during trial or at the time of entering his defence. However, the evolution of law has seen that at the stage of framing charge, Courts can rely upon the material which has been withheld by the prosecutor, even if such material is not part of the charge sheet, but is of such sterling quality demolishing the case of the prosecution.[15] Courts are not handicapped to consider relevant material at the stage of framing charge, which is not relied upon by the prosecution. It is no argument that the accused can ask for the documents withheld at the time of entering his defence.[16] The framing of charge is a serious matter in a criminal trial as it ordains an accused to face a long and arduous trial affecting his liberty. Therefore, the Court must have all relevant material before the stage of framing charge to ascertain if grave suspicion is made out or not. Full disclosure at the stage of section 207 of the code, which immediately precedes discharging or charging an accused, enables an accused to seek a discharge, if the documents, including those not relied upon by the prosecution, create an equally possible view in favour of the accused.[17] On the other hand, delaying the reception of documents postpones the vindication of the accused in an unworthy trial and causes injustice by subjecting him to the trauma of trial. There is no gainsaying that justice delayed is justice denied, therefore, such an approach ought not to receive judicial consent. A timely discharge also travels a long way in saving precious time of the judiciary, which is already overburdened by the burgeoning pendency of cases. Thus, delayed or piecemeal disclosure not only prejudices the defence of the accused, but also protracts the trial and occasions travesty of justice.
III. Duties of the stakeholders in criminal justice system
The foregoing analysis reveals that participation of the investigating agency, the prosecution and the Court is inextricably linked to the enforcement of the right to disclosure. The duties cast on these three stakeholders in the criminal justice system, are critical to the protection of this right. It is incumbent upon the investigating agencies to investigate cases fairly and to place on record all the material irrespective of its implication on the case of prosecution case. Investigation must be carried out with equal alacrity and fairness irrespective of status of accused or complainant.[18] An onerous duty is cast on the prosecution as an independent statutory officer, to conduct the trial with the objective of determination of truth and to ensure that material favourable to the defence is supplied to the accused. Ultimately, it is the overarching duty of the Court to ensure a fair trial towards the administration of justice for all parties. The principles of fair trial require the Court to strike a delicate balance between competing interests in a system of adversarial advocacy. Therefore, the court ought to exercise its power under section 156(3) of the Code to monitor investigation and ensure that all material, including that which enures to the benefit of the accused, is brought on record. Even at the stage of supply of copies of police report and documents under section 207 of the Code, it is the duty of the Court to give effect to the law laid down by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in Manu Sharma (supra) and Sasikala (supra), and ensure that all such material is supplied to the accused irrespective of whether it is “relied upon” by the prosecution or not.
IV. Alternate Remedy
The conundrum of supply of copies under section 207 of the code abounds criminal trials. Fairness is an evolving concept. There is no doubt that disclosure of all material which goes to establish the innocence of an accused is the sine qua non of a fair trial.[19] Effort is evidently underway to expand the concept in alignment with English jurisprudence. In the meanwhile, does the right of an accused to disclosure have another limb to stand on? Section 91 of the Code comes to the rescue of an accused, which confers wide discretionary powers on the Court, independent of section 173 of the Code, to summon the production of things or documents, relevant for the just adjudication of the case. In case the Court is of the opinion that the prosecution has withheld vital, relevant and admissible evidence from the Court, it can legitimately use its power under section 91 of the Code to discover the truth and to do complete justice to the accused.[20]
V. Conclusion
A society’s progress and advancement are judged on many parameters, an important one among them being the manner in which it administers criminal justice. Conversely, the ironic sacrilege of the core virtues of criminal jurisprudence in the temples of justice evinces social decadence. The Indian legislature of the twenty first century has given birth to several draconian statutes which place iron shackles on personal liberty, evoking widespread fear of police abuses and malicious prosecution. These statutes not only entail presumptions which reverse the burden of proof, but also include impediments to the grant of bail. Thus, a very heavy burden to dislodge the prosecution case is imposed on the accused, rendering the right to disclosure of paramount importance. It is the duty of the Court to keep vigil over this Constitutional and statutory right conferred on an accused by repudiating any procedure which prejudices his defence. Notable advancement has been made by the Apex Court in interpreting section 207 of the Code in conformity with the Constitutional mandate, including the right to disclosure. Strict adherence to the afore-noted principles will go a long way in ensuring real and substantial justice. Any departure will not only lead to judicial anarchy, but also further diminish the already dwindling faith of the public in the justice delivery system.
**
Advocate Manu Sharma has been practising at the bar for over sixteen years. He specialises in Criminal Defence. Some of the high profile cases he has represented are – the 2G scam case for former Union minister A Raja; the Religare/Fortis case for Malvinder Singh; Peter Mukerjee in the P Chidambaram/ INX Media case; Devas Multimedia in ISRO corruption act case; Om Prakash Chautala in PMLA case; Aditya Talwar in the aviation scam case; Dilip Ray, former Coal Minister in one of the coal scam cases; Suhaib Illyasi case.
**
Disclaimer: The views or opinions expressed are solely of the author.
[1] Maneka Gandhi and Another v. Union of India, (1978) 1 SCC 248
[2] S. 3 of the Criminal Procedure and Investigations Act, 1996
[3] R v. H and R v. C, 2004 (1) ALL ER 1269
[4] R v. Ward (Judith), (1993) 1 WLR 619 : (1993) 2 ALL ER 577 (CA)
[5] R v. Preston, (1994) 2 AC 130 : (1993) 3 WLR 891 : (1993) 4 ALL ER 638 (HL), R v. Stinchcome,
(1991), 68 C.C.C. (3d) 1 (S.C.C.)
[6] Vinubhai Haribhai Malaviya and Others v. State of Gujarat and Another, 2019 SCC Online SC 1346
[7] Sidhartha Vashishth alias Manu Sharma v. State (NCT of Delhi), (2010) 6 SCC 1
[8] R. 16, part II, Ch. VI of the Bar Council of India Rules
[9] Manu Sharma, (2010) 6 SCC 1
[10] V.K. Sasikala v. State, (2012) 9 SCC 771 : AIR 2013 SC 613
[11] Sasikala, (2012) 9 SCC 771 : AIR 2013 SC 613
[12] Sala Gupta and Another v. Directorate of Enforcement, (2019) 262 DLT 661
[13] State of Orissa v. Debendra Nath Padhi¸(2005) 1 SCC 568
[14] Dharambir v. Central Bureau of Investigation, ILR (2008) 2 Del 842 : (2008) 148 DLT 289
[15] Nitya Dharmananda alias K. Lenin and Another v. Gopal Sheelum Reddy, (2018) 2 SCC 93
[16] Neelesh Jain v. State of Rajasthan, 2006 Cri LJ 2151
[17] Dilwar Balu Kurane v. State of Maharashtra, (2002) 2 SCC 135, Yogesh alias Sachin Jagdish Joshi v. State of Maharashtra, (2008) 10 SCC 394
[18] Karan Singh v. State of Haryana, (2013) 12 SCC 529
[19] Kanwar Jagat Singh v. Directorate of Enforcement & Anr, (2007) 142 DLT 49
[20] Neelesh, 2006 Cri LJ 2151
Disclaimer: The views or opinions expressed are solely of the author.
Validity & Existence of an Arbitration Clause in an Unstamped Agreement
By Kunal Kumar
January 8, 2024
In a recent ruling, a seven-judge bench of the Supreme Court of India in its judgment in re: Interplay between arbitration agreements under the Arbitration & Conciliation Act 1996 and the Indian Stamp Act 1899, overruled the constitutional bench decision of the Supreme Court of India in N. N. Mercantile Private Limited v. Indo Unique Flame Ltd. & Ors. and has settled the issue concerning the validity and existence of an arbitration clause in an unstamped agreement. (‘N. N. Global Mercantile (P) Ltd. v. Indo Unique Flame Ltd. – III’)
Background to N. N. Global Mercantile (P) Ltd. v. Indo Unique Flame Ltd. – III
One of the first instances concerning the issue of the validity of an unstamped agreement arose in the case of SMS Tea Estate Pvt. Ltd. v. Chandmari Tea Company Pvt. Ltd. In this case, the Hon’ble Apex Court held that if an instrument/document lacks proper stamping, the exercising Court must preclude itself from acting upon it, including the arbitration clause. It further emphasized that it is imperative for the Court to impound such documents/instruments and must accordingly adhere to the prescribed procedure outlined in the Indian Stamp Act 1899.
With the introduction of the 2015 Amendment, Section 11(6A) was inserted in the Arbitration & Conciliation Act 1996 (A&C Act) which stated whilst appointing an arbitrator under the A&C Act, the Court must confine itself to the examination of the existence of an arbitration agreement.
In the case of M/s Duro Felguera S.A. v. M/s Gangavaram Port Limited, the Supreme Court of India made a noteworthy observation, affirming that the legislative intent behind the 2015 Amendment to the A&C Act was necessitated to minimise the Court's involvement during the stage of appointing an arbitrator and that the purpose embodied in Section 11(6A) of A&C Act, deserves due acknowledgement & respect.
In the case of Garware Wall Ropes Ltd. v. Cosatal Marine Constructions & Engineering Ltd., a divisional bench of the Apex Court reaffirmed its previous decision held in SMS Tea Estates (supra) and concluded that the inclusion of an arbitration clause in a contract assumes significance, emphasizing that the agreement transforms into a contract only when it holds legal enforceability. The Apex Court observed that an agreement fails to attain the status of a contract and would not be legally enforceable unless it bears the requisite stamp as mandated under the Indian Stamp Act 1899. Accordingly, the Court concluded that Section 11(6A) read in conjunction with Section 7(2) of the A&C Act and Section 2(h) of the Indian Contract Act 1872, clarified that the existence of an arbitration clause within an agreement is contingent on its legal enforceability and that the 2015 Amendment of the A&C Act to Section 11(6A) had not altered the principles laid out in SMS Tea Estates (supra).
Brief Factual Matrix – N. N. Global Mercantile (P) Ltd. v. Indo Unique Flame Ltd.
Indo Unique Flame Ltd. (‘Indo Unique’) was awarded a contract for a coal beneficiation/washing project with Karnataka Power Corporation Ltd. (‘KPCL’). In the course of the project, Indo Unique entered into a subcontract in the form of a Work Order with N.N. Global Mercantile Pvt. Ltd. (‘N.N. Global’) for coal transportation, coal handling and loading. Subsequently, certain disputes arose with KPCL, leading to KPCL invoking Bank Guarantees of Indo Unique under the main contract, after which Indo Unique invoked the Bank Guarantee of N. N. Global as supplied under the Work Order.
Top of FormS
Subsequently, N.N. Global initiated legal proceedings against the cashing of the Bank Guarantee in a Commercial Court. In response thereto, Indo Unique moved an application under Section 8 of the A&C Act, requesting that the Parties to the dispute be referred for arbitration. The Commercial Court dismissed the Section 8 application, citing the unstamped status of the Work Order as one of the grounds. Dissatisfied with the Commercial Court's decision on 18 January 2018, Indo Unique filed a Writ Petition before the High Court of Bombay seeking that the Order passed by the Commercial Court be quashed or set aside. The Hon’ble Bombay High Court on 30 September 2020 allowed the Writ Petition filed by Indo Unique, aggrieved by which, N.N. Global filed a Special Leave Petition before the Supreme Court of India.
N. N. Global Mercantile Pvt. Ltd. v. Indo Unique Flame Ltd. – I
The issue in the matter of M/s N.N. Global Mercantile Pvt. Ltd. v. M/s Indo Unqiue Flame Ltd. & Ors. came up before a three-bench of the Supreme Court of India i.e. in a situation when an underlying contract is not stamped or is insufficiently stamped, as required under the Indian Stamp Act 1899, would that also render the arbitration clause as non-existent and/or unenforceable (‘N.N. Global Mercantile Pvt. Ltd. v. Indo Flame Ltd. – I’).
The Hon’ble Supreme Court of India whilst emphasizing the 'Doctrine of Separability' of an arbitration agreement held that the non-payment of stamp duty on the commercial contract would not invalidate, vitiate, or render the arbitration clause as unenforceable, because the arbitration agreement is considered an independent contract from the main contract, and the existence and/or validity of an arbitration clause is not conditional on the stamping of a contract. The Hon’ble Supreme Court further held that deficiency in stamp duty of a contract is a curable defect and that the deficiency in stamp duty on the work order, would not affect the validity and/or enforceability of the arbitration clause, thus applying the Doctrine of Separability. The arbitration agreement remains valid and enforceable even if the main contract, within which it is embedded, is not admissible in evidence owing to lack of stamping.
The Hon’ble Apex Court, however, considered it appropriate to refer the issue i.e. whether unstamped instrument/document, would also render an arbitration clause as non-existent, unenforceable, to a constitutional bench of five-bench of the Supreme Court.
N. N. Global Mercantile (P) Ltd. v. Indo Unique Flame Ltd. – II
On 25 April 2023, a five-judge bench of the Hon’ble Supreme Court of India in the matter of N. N. Mercantile Private Limited v. Indo Unique Flame Ltd. & Ors. held that (1) An unstamped instrument containing an arbitration agreement cannot be said to be a contract which is enforceable in law within the meaning of Section 2(h) of the Indian Contract Act 1872 and would be void under Section 2(g) of the Indian Contract Act 1872, (2) an unstamped instrument which is not a contract nor enforceable cannot be acted upon unless it is duly stamped, and would not otherwise exist in the eyes of the law, (3) the certified copy of the arbitration agreement produced before a Court, must clearly indicate the stamp duty paid on the instrument, (4) the Court exercising its power in appointing an arbitration under Section 11 of the A&C Act, is required to act in terms of Section 33 and Section 35 of the Indian Stamp Act 1899 (N. N. Global Mercantile (P) Ltd. v. Indo Unique Flame Ltd. – II).
N. N. Global Mercantile (P) Ltd. v. Indo Unique Flame Ltd. – III
A seven-judge bench of the Supreme Court of India on 13 December 2023 in its recent judgment in re: Interplay between arbitration agreements under the Arbitration & Conciliation Act 1996 and the Indian Stamp Act 1899, (1) Agreements lacking proper stamping or inadequately stamped are deemed inadmissible as evidence under Section 35 of the Stamp Act. However, such agreements are not automatically rendered void or unenforceable ab initio; (2) non-stamping or insufficient stamping of a contract is a curable defect, (2) the issue of stamping is not subject to determination under Sections 8 or 11 of the A&C Act by a Court. The concerned Court is only required to assess the prima facie existence of the arbitration agreement, separate from concerns related to stamping, and (3) any objections pertaining to the stamping of the agreement would fall within the jurisdiction of the arbitral tribunal. Accordingly, the decision in N. N. Global Mercantile (P) Ltd. v. Indo Unique Flame Ltd. – II and SMS Tea (supra) was overruled, by the seven-judge bench of the Supreme Court of India.
Kunal is a qualified lawyer with more than nine years of experience and has completed his LL.M. in Dispute Resolution (specialisation in International Commercial Arbitration) from Straus Institute for Dispute Resolution, Pepperdine University, California.
Kunal currently has his own independent practice and specializes in commercial/construction arbitration as well as civil litigation. He has handled several matters relating to Civil Law and arbitrations (both domestic and international) and has appeared before the Supreme Court of India, High Court of Delhi, District Courts of Delhi and various other tribunals.
No Safe Harbour For Google On Trademark Infringement
By Mayank Grover & Pratibha Vyas
October 9, 2023
Innovation, patience, dedication and uniqueness culminate in establishing a distinct identity. A trademark aids in identifying the source and quality, shaping perceptions about the identity's essence. When values accompany a product or service's trademark, safeguarding against misuse and infringement becomes crucial. A recent pronouncement of a Division Bench of the Delhi High Court dated August 10, 2023 in Google LLC v. DRS Logistics (P) Ltd. & Ors. and Google India Private Limited v. DRS Logistics (P) Ltd. & Ors. directed that Google’s use of trademarks as keywords for its Google Ads Programme does amount to ‘use’ in advertising under the Trademarks Act and the benefit of safe harbour would not be available to Google if such keywords infringe on the concerned trademark.
Factual Background
Google LLC manages and operates the Google Search Engine and Ads Programme, while, Google India Private Limited is a subsidiary of Google that has been appointed as a non-exclusive reseller of the Ads Programme in India. The Respondents, DRS Logistics and Agarwal Packers and Movers Pvt. Ltd. are leading packaging, moving and logistics service providers in India.
On 22.12.2011, DRS filed a suit against Google and Just Dial Ltd. under provisions of the Trademarks Act, 1999 (‘TM Act’) inter alia seeking a permanent injunction against Google from permitting third parties from infringing, passing off etc. the relevant trademarks of DRS. The core of the dispute revolved around Google’s Ads Programme. DRS claimed that its trade name 'AGARWAL PACKERS AND MOVERS' is widely recognized and a 'well-known' trademark. Use of DRS’s trademark as a keyword diverts internet traffic from its website to that of its competitors and they were entitled to seek restraint against Google for permitting third parties who are not authorized to use the said trademark. DRS further argued that Google benefits from these trademark infringements. This practice involved charging a higher amount for displaying these ads, constituting an infringement of their trademarks. Whereas, Google contended that the use of the keyword in the Ads Programme does not amount to ‘use’ under the TM Act notwithstanding that the keyword is/or similar to a trademark. Thus, the use of a term as a keyword cannot be construed as an infringement of a trademark under the TM Act, and being an intermediary, it claimed a safe harbour under Section 79 of the Information Technology Act, 2000. (‘IT Act’).
In essence, the dispute between the parties was rooted in DRS’s grievance concerning the Ads Programme. The Learned Single Judge vide judgment dated 30.10.2021interpreted relevant provisions of the TM Act and drew on multiple legal precedents to arrive at the decision that DRS can seek protection of its trademarks which were registered under Section 28 of the TM Act and issued directions to investigate complaints alleging the use of trademark and/or to ascertain whether a sponsored result has an effect of infringing a trademark or passing off.
Being aggrieved, Google LLC and Google Pvt. Ltd. filed appeals before the Division Bench. Google LLC argued that the Single Judge’s findings were erroneous and the directions issued were liable to be set aside. Google India claimed that it doesn’t control and operate the Search Engine and the Ads Programme making it unable to comply with the directions passed in the impugned judgment.
Analysis & Decision of Court
The Division Bench found Single Judge’s rationale for assessing trademark infringement through keywords and meta-tags valid. Meta-tags are a list of words/code in a website, not readily visible to the naked eye. It serves as a tool for indexing the website by a search engine. If a trademark of a third party is used as a meta-tag, the same would serve as identifying the website as relevant to the search query that includes the trademark as a search term. The use of keywords in the Ads Programme also serves similar purpose. The Division Bench was unable to accept that using a trademark as a keyword, even if not visible, would not be considered trademark use under the TM Act.
Google placed heavy reliance on the decisions rendered by Courts across jurisdictions of United Kingdom, United States of America, European Union, Australia, New Zealand, Russia, South Africa, Canada, Spain, Italy, Japan and China; in the cases of Google France SARL and Google Inc. v. Louis Vitton SA & Ors.[1], Interflora Inc. v. Marks & Spencer Plc.[2], and L’Oreal SA v. eBay International AG[3] in support of the contention that the use of trade marks is by the advertiser and not by Google. However, the Division Bench rejected Google’s passive role; highlighting its active involvement in recommending and promoting trademark keywords for higher clicks in its Ads Programme. Division Bench referred to a few judicial decisions rendered in the United States of America that captured the essence of the controversy for perspective, concluding that Google actively promotes and encourages trademarks associated with major goods and services, rather than having a passive role.
It was held that the contention that the use of trademarks as keywords, per se constitutes an infringement of the trademark is unmerited; the assumption that an internet user is merely searching the address of the proprietor of the trademark when he feeds in a search query that may contain a trademark, is erroneous.
The Doctrine of 'Initial Interest Confusion' addresses trademark infringement based on pre-purchase confusion. The doctrine is applied when meta-tags, keywords, or domain names cause initial confusion similar to a registered trademark. If users are misled to access unrelated websites, trademark use in internet advertising may be actionable and reliance was placed on US precedents. Referring to Section 29 of the TM Act, it was directed that Section 29 does not specify the duration for which the confusion lasts but, even if the confusion is for a short duration and an internet user is able to recover from the same, the trade mark would be infringed and would offend Section 29(2) of the TM Act.
It was held that the Ads Programme is a platform for displaying advertisements. Google, being an architect and operator of its own programme makes it an active participant in the use of trademarks and determining the advertisements displayed on search pages. Their use of proprietary software makes them utilize trademarks and control the distribution of information related to potentially infringing links, ultimately leading to revenue maximization. Hence, a substantial link exists between Google LLC and Google India, rendering it impossible for Google India to deny its role in operating the Ads Programme. It was further held that Google sells trademarks as keywords to advertisers and encourages users to use trademarks as keywords for ads. It is contradictory for Google to encourage trademark use while claiming data belongs to third parties for exemption. After 2004, Google changed policies to boost revenue and subsequently, introduced a tool that searches effective terms, including trademarks. Google's active involvement in its advertising business and online nature does not necessarily qualify it for benefits under Section 79 of the IT Act. The Division Bench agreed with the view of the Single Judge that Google would not be eligible for protection of safe harbour under Section 79(1) of the IT Act, if its alleged activities infringe trademarks.
Conclusion
This is a seminal decision governing (and rather, restricting) the operations of intermediaries and redefining the jurisprudence of safe harbour under the IT Act. The decision is well-reasoned and establishes a significant precedent for safeguarding trademarks by uniquely holding Google accountable under its Ads Programme. The same will prevent usage of tradenames as a third-party trademark in keyword search or metatags by advertisers on Google’s search engine. While keywords and meta-tags have different levels of visibility, their purpose is similar i.e. advertising and attracting internet traffic. The use of trademarks as meta-tags by a person who is neither a proprietor of the trademark nor permitted to use the same leads to confusion amongst public at large due to the automated processes of search engines and consequently, constitutes trademark infringement.
About the Authors: Mayank Grover is a Partner and Pratibha Vyas is an Associate at Seraphic Advisors, Advocates & Solicitors
[1] C-236/08 to C-238/08 (2010) [2011] All ER (EC) 41
[2] [2014] EWCA Civ 1403
[3] 2C- 324/09 (2010)
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